I understand why income=expenditure (one persons expenditure is anothers incoem) but why is it that this then equals gdp which i understand to be the market value of all goods/service produces in a country in a year
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Why does gdp equal income/expenditure? watch
- Thread Starter
- 14-05-2016 16:22
- Official Rep
- 16-05-2016 17:50
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Just quoting in Puddles the Monkey so she can move the thread if needed
Spoiler:Show(Original post by Puddles the Monkey)