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    I was just doing a chemistry past paper and the mark scheme said that the electron configuration of Ni2+ is [Ar]3d8.

    Why isn't it [Ar]4s2 3d6? I thought that the next s level always had to fill before the d level? Is it because nickel is a transition metal?
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    No. Once the 4s orbital is filled, it will be in a higher energy level than 3d. Therefore, you'll remove electrons from 4s first.
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    (Original post by rosemondtan)
    No. Once the 4s orbital is filled, it will be in a higher energy level than 3d. Therefore, you'll remove electrons from 4s first.
    Ahh I see because it's lost two electrons!! Thank you so much!!!!
 
 
 
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