For part 7(ii) i got the correct answer but more by luck, that understanding. How is it you dont have to consider the block beneath to workout the coefficient of friction?
Any help would be appreciated
M1 question block on a block. Watch
- Thread Starter
- 28-05-2016 09:51
- 28-05-2016 10:35
I'm a little rusty on my mechanics but I think it is because the upper block is in limiting equilibrium. You only need to consider forces acting on that block in question. Like you did for part (a).