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M1 question block on a block.

Hey.
For part 7(ii) i got the correct answer but more by luck, that understanding. How is it you dont have to consider the block beneath to workout the coefficient of friction?

http://www.ocr.org.uk/Images/63190-question-paper-unit-4728-01-mechanics-1.pdf

Any help would be appreciated
Thanks.
Reply 1
I'm a little rusty on my mechanics but I think it is because the upper block is in limiting equilibrium. You only need to consider forces acting on that block in question. Like you did for part (a).

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