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    I can't seem to upload the picture of the graphs but given that y=f(x) where f(x)=e^x, why does the graph y= 2f(x)-1 still cross the y axis at y=1 and not cross the y axis at y=0? I thought that the graph would be steeper and translated 1 unit down but the mark scheme says otherwise.
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    (Original post by _kates23)
    I can't seem to upload the picture of the graphs but given that y=f(x) where f(x)=e^x, why does the graph y= 2f(x)-1 still cross the y axis at y=1 and not cross the y axis at y=0? I thought that the graph would be steeper and translated 1 unit down but the mark scheme says otherwise.
    Yes, but it's stretched by 2 units first. So it originally crosses the y-axis at y=1, then gets stretched to y=2 then moves down to y=1.
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    (Original post by Zacken)
    Yes, but it's stretched by 2 units first. So it originally crosses the y-axis at y=1, then gets stretched to y=2 then moves down to y=1.
    Thank you, it makes sense to me now!
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    (Original post by _kates23)
    Thank you, it makes sense to me now!
    Great!
 
 
 
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