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    Can someone help with this question on statistics please:

    "The continuous random variable Y has the normal distribution N(10,2squared)

    Write down the value of:

    a) P(Y = 10)

    b) P(Y < 10)"

    The answer to a) is 0 and the answer to b) is 0.5. I think I understand why the answer to b) is 0.5 - i.e. because 10 is the mean so 50 percent is above the mean and 50 percent is below the mean (is that right?) - but why is the answer to a) 0?

    Thank you!
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    The probability of an exact value occurring (=) will always be 0 in normal distribution, whether is P(Y=4) or P(Y=10) or anything equals it will always be 0.
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    (Original post by juicedesuccess)
    Can someone help with this question on statistics please:

    "The continuous random variable Y has the normal distribution N(10,2squared)

    Write down the value of:

    a) P(Y = 10)

    b) P(Y < 10)"

    The answer to a) is 0 and the answer to b) is 0.5. I think I understand why the answer to b) is 0.5 - i.e. because 10 is the mean so 50 percent is above the mean and 50 percent is below the mean (is that right?) - but why is the answer to a) 0?

    Thank you!
    In more generality then the above, the probability that P(X = a) for some continuous random variable is 0 for all a.

    That is, the probability of a continuous random variable is the area underneath the curve; so the probability that it is between a and b is the integral between a and b.

    But the probability that is is equal to a, is the integral between a and a of the pdf, which is 0.
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    (Original post by fpmaniac)
    The probability of an exact value occurring (=) will always be 0 in normal distribution, whether is P(Y=4) or P(Y=10) or anything equals it will always be 0.
    Thanks so much for this - it's really helped me out
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    (Original post by Zacken)
    In more generality then the above, the probability that P(X = a) for some continuous random variable is 0 for all a.

    That is, the probability of a continuous random variable is the area underneath the curve; so the probability that it is between a and b is the integral between a and b.

    But the probability that is is equal to a, is the integral between a and a of the pdf, which is 0.
    Thank you so much for taking the time to answer - I actually understand it now!! Thanks again!
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    (Original post by juicedesuccess)
    Thank you so much for taking the time to answer - I actually understand it now!! Thanks again!
    No worries!
 
 
 
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