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    Hi Guys,
    would you please have a look at the question and the answer below and give your opinion on it. the transformation is clearly is a stretch by a scale factor of 1/2 in x-axis and also translation of (-2, 0) but the answer in mark sheet is saying translation of (-1,0)?????
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    For x, if you start the transformation with a stretch, then you must also apply the stretch to the translation.2 * 0.5 = 1, hence the translation of -1.

    If you start with the translation first, then you don't need to apply the stretch to the translation.
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    To avoid this situation, when both transformations are in the x axis, always do translation first then stretch, and when both in y axis, do stretch first then translation
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    (Original post by fpmaniac)
    To avoid this situation, when both transformations are in the x axis, always do translation first then stretch, and when both in y axis, do stretch first then translation
    so for f(x) to be transformed into f(2x+2) , f(x) should be translated by -2 and stretch by the scale factor of 1/2???still the same answer tho
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    (Original post by Alen.m)
    so for f(x) to be transformed into f(2x+2) , f(x) should be translated by -2 and stretch by the scale factor of 1/2???still the same answer tho
    Yes you have two options:

    Stretch sf 1/2 x axis, or f(x) => f(2x)
    Translation (-1, 0), or f(2x) => f(2(x+1)) = f(2x+2)

    or

    Translation (-2), f(x) => f(x+2)
    Stretch sf 1/2 x axis, f(x+2) => f(2x+2)
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    (Original post by Alen.m)
    so for f(x) to be transformed into f(2x+2) , f(x) should be translated by -2 and stretch by the scale factor of 1/2???still the same answer tho
    I think I've done that paper and in the alternate mark scheme it says what you just said.. so its a different answer but still correct.
 
 
 
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