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    Best argument I heard so far - Phelps is genetically advantaged for swimming, so is she.

    However, the problem is that she is competing against women. She is not a woman.

    Anyhow, she is allowed to compete - she just has to take medicine to get under a certain level of testosterone. That level is three times the 99th percentile. By all accounts, that is already a ridiculously high number.

    And it's not the only area where sports has rules. In winter sports it is very common for athletes to train at altitude and get to high levels of red blood cells. 50% is the limit even though you may have naturally high levels and training slightly too long at altitude gets you over, completely naturally, you will be suspended (note not as a doping offender but officially as a protective measure).
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    There is apparently not a whole bunch of evidence that raised testosterone is of benefit athletically.

    She's a woman. Pretty simple rules there!
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    (Original post by Neostigmine)
    There is apparently not a whole bunch of evidence that raised testosterone is of benefit athletically.

    She's a woman. Pretty simple rules there!
    The simple fact that under her treatment she was, while doing still rather well, nowhere near the almost surely doped fabulous Russian world record time is evidence enough.

    Just because some Indian athlete challenged the CAS with this "where is the evidence" doesn't mean there isn't any. It's a legal mumbo jumbo that came just in time for the Olympics.
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    If it is true, but there is no evidence, we have nothing to base it on so it's totally moot.

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    (Original post by Neostigmine)
    If it is true, but there is no evidence, we have nothing to base it on so it's totally moot.

    There isn't any evidence the IAAF was able to produce sufficient for a court case in short time.
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    (Original post by Neostigmine)
    There is apparently not a whole bunch of evidence that raised testosterone is of benefit athletically.
    Why do cheaters take steroids then?
 
 
 
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