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    Hello. So I'm new to the forum. Haven't had much talking with anybody else yet :P. I joined the forum basically because I am revising for the A-level and would love to have some friends who I can revise with. Nice to know you!

    I'm working on Psychology and my exam board is CIE. I've been thinking about this one question on Veale and Riley mirror gazing study. The question asks me to explain why one of the two matched variables, age and sex, might have been important to the study.

    I understand that some variables are matched because similarity in certain features of the participants are crucial to the study, i.e. some inborn traits of the participants may influence the results. Controlling these variables is one way to make sure the participants are in the same condition. As for this particular study, I think sex might be important. Women are frequently more concerned with their appearance than men, which can potentially increase their vulnerability to BDD - just my guess though. But what does this have to do with the purpose of the study, which is to determine the function, effects and motivation of mirror gazing to BDD patients? By the way, this is related to another question of mine and this exactly is the reason why I cannot answer the first question. Why a control group is necessary in this case? Why don't they just investigate the thoughts of the patients to fulfill the purpose? Why a comparison with normality is needed in order to know what the patients think?

    Would love to hear your ideas so much! My goal is an a so I really really want to answer every question as thoroughly as I can . Thanks a bunch!

    P/S: I'm also studying Sociology
Have you ever experienced racism/sexism at uni?

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