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    I have recently been introduced to the sequence of tenses by my latin teacher. Having checked over and read about it online, I think that he may have explained it incorrectly. What he said was that the tense of the subjunctive verb in latin depends on whether the action is a completed action or not, rather than when the action in the subordinate clause stands in relation to the main verb. Here are some examples- we were given the english and we had to decide what tense the subjunctive verb would be if the sentence were translated into latin. Please can you check if I am correct:We had already succeeded so well that we hoped to win- subjunctive verb would be imperfect as the perfect verb 'hoped' takes place after the pluperfect main verb 'had succeeded'He ran so quickly that no one could catch him- subjunctive verb would be imperfect as the two verbs occur at the same time relatively speakingWe shall ask what he is doing- subjunctive verb should be in the perfect because the present tense 'is doing' takes place before the future 'we shall'Have you heard what he has done- subjunctive verb would be present, as the two verbs occur at the same timeThanks for your help- I'm just really confused!
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    I would say that you are right on all of them except

    We shall ask what he is doing- subjunctive verb should be in the perfect because the present tense 'is doing' takes place before the future 'we shall'
    I would say that the subjunctive should be present because that sentence suggests to me that we are going to ask what he is doing, i.e. he is doing it now and he will still be doing it when we ask, therefore the action is taking place at the same time as the verb. Does that make sense?

    Other than that, the rest look right to me... it's a fairly tricky concept to grasp but it comes eventually with lots of practice... I still have to think hard about it because it doesn't come naturally!
 
 
 
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