Think it's understandable that I want this to stay anonymous....
Last friday I went to a friend of a friend's BBQ - a guy that I've always been a bit iffy about him from the fact the first time we met he was trying to feel me up whilst talking about how amazing his girlfriend at the time was. Anyway, I got horribly drunk, and can't remember anything of the night past him trying to grope me when I said about having a bad back and me moving away. I woke up on Saturday morning to multiple texts from friends asking if I was alright - and since I couldn't remember anything I replied to which I was informed that I'd had sex with him. Thing is, story from my friends is that he was hardly drunk, that he blocked the door to the room so that people couldn't get in and was generally pretty much of a ******. But he sent a text saying "about the other night, we were both really drunk, can we try to remain friends" so not I wrote him an email explaining stuff my friends had said, and that I was pretty annoyed he hadn't had the decency to clear up what happened between us when I texted him. Basically, the whole point to this is that he then claimed that it was because he couldn't remember the night himself, but I was wondering if that can even be true, as I would've thought it would have been possible of him to manage to have sex if he was that drunk he couldn't remember it. Basically I need to know if he's lying to me, I could handle drunken sex with someone who knows I don't like him sober if he was genuinely drunk, but it seems like he's lying about how drunk he was which is the bit that's pissing me off - I wouldn't really object to it if he just said he didn't clear it up because he felt awkward texting me to say we'd had sex, it's just the bull**** to avoid looking like he's taken advantage makes it feel like he feels guilty and is covering it up, which bothers me.
So yeah, if a guy was sober enough to manage to have sex, is it possible/likely that he couldn't remember it in the morning?