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    Newton's 2nd Law states that rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the resultant force. F=dp/dt.
    Doesn't resultant force equal to rate of change of momentum? Why is it directly proportional instead of equal as stated in the law?

    Thanks so much!!!
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    (Original post by chinut)
    Newton's 2nd Law states that rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the resultant force. F=dp/dt.
    Doesn't resultant force equal to rate of change of momentum? Why is it directly proportional instead of equal as stated in the law?

    Thanks so much!!!
    Directly proportional means there is a constant relating the two quantities. In this case, that constant is just 1 which makes it equal
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    As rate of change of momentum rises force rises. Hence; they are directly proportional.
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    (Original post by lyamlim97)
    Directly proportional means there is a constant relating the two quantities. In this case, that constant is just 1 which makes it equal
    So the constant will always be 1 and it's correct to say force equals to rate of change of momentum. Am i right? Thx!!
 
 
 
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