Let's assume that races, genders, and cultures are not equal.Watch
For the sake of argument, assume that one group has genetic and cultural advantages and another group has the same disadvantages. This disparity causes the disadvantaged group to suffer inequality in income, social status, health, and education. My question is this:
Is it incumbent upon the advantaged group to to provide more opportunity for the disadvantaged group even though the disparity is fostered by behavior and not by prejudice?
You really could have picked a better example though. It's been shown that for the same crimes men are given stricter sentencing, but hey ho, not really the point you wanted to discuss.