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    Hello all, really hoping that some EU Law gurus can help me out here!

    I have a research task of finding academic opinion & case law on the statement that 'direct effect was adequate for enforcing EU measures in national courts, and that the development of indirect effect and state liability was unnecessary'

    I can obviously make the argument that DE was not enough, due to the limitation on directives only having vertical direct effect. And also the issue of the implementation date - making the direct effect of directives very restrictive.

    What I am struggling to find is any academic opinion that would argue on the other side of that argument... that direct effect was adequate and further development in methods of enforcing EU Law was unnecessary! I've really hit a brick wall in my research...

    Any feedback on this at all would be massively appreciated.

    Thank you,
 
 
 
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