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    Hi, I was wondering if anyone could help me as to how they would go about tackling this question. I have no idea how to structure a problem question answer at all for Land Law. It's my weakest subject.

    Mary was the registered owner of Republican Acre, which she purchased with Daniel, who
    contributed 40% of the purchase price. Republican Acre comprises a house, in which they
    both live, and an adjoining field. Alex has an express easement over Republican Acre,
    giving him access to the river from his neighbouring property, but he now no longer uses
    the easement since he recently became scared of water. Last year Mary granted Alex a
    ten-year option to purchase Republican Acre for £5,000,000. In January 2016, Mary sold
    Republican Acre to Chad for £10,000,000 while Daniel was on a 3-month ‘round the world’
    cruise and Alex was staying in their guest room because all the bathrooms were being
    renovated in his house. Chad is now the registered owner of Republican Acre.
    (a) Advise Chad.
    (b) How, if at all, would your advice differ in EACH of the following
    ALTERNATIVE circumstances:
    (i) No purchase monies arose on the disposition to Chad as the house was a gift from
    Mary;
    (ii) Chad only paid £1 for Republican Acre?
    (iii) Chad had insisted that Mary appoint another trustee to sign the receipt for the
    payment of the purchase price.
    (c) Describe, how, if at all, your advice in (a) and (b) would differ if title to the land was
    unregistered and each transaction was carried out solely subject to the rules of
    unregistered title.
 
 
 
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