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    Hi everyone

    i need help how to
    prove that (2p − 1)! ≡ p (mod p^ 2 ).
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    (Original post by rula)
    Hi everyone

    i need help how to
    prove that (2p − 1)! ≡ p (mod p^ 2 ).
    Probably best to ask in a maths forum. This is health
    You may also be able to google it.

    Sorry I can't help myself. Good luck.
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    I can see a way that doesn't involve Fermat's little theorem, and I'd struggle to hint at it without actually doing it.

    Anyone else care to pick up the baton?
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    (Original post by ghostwalker)
    I can see a way that doesn't involve Fermat's little theorem, and I'd struggle to hint at it without actually doing it.

    Anyone else care to pick up the baton?
    I think it follows fairly readily from another named theorem that (unlike Fermat) involves factorials...
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    As above: *coughs* Wil... *coughs*
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    (Original post by rula)
    Hi everyone

    i need help how to
    prove that (2p − 1)! ≡ p (mod p^ 2 ).
    U put in the health forum, that is half the priblem mate.
    Anyway, you should know it aint fermat since the mod isnt prime, (p^2 obviously isnt prime). U need another therem, the one with (p-1)!


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    Thanks all - my number theory is so rusty, I thought I might have been missing a trick.
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    (Original post by ghostwalker)
    Thanks all - my number theory is so rusty, I thought I might have been missing a trick.
    Curious to know what your method was, at an appropriate point...
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    (Original post by Zacken)
    As above: *coughs* Wil... *coughs*
    You take care of that cough, son.
 
 
 
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