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    "Person A breaks up with Person B.

    Person B does not allow Person A to leave, which escalates into Person B physically restraining Person A.

    Person B begins to grope and then initiates sex with Person A. Person A does fight back and tell Person B to stop. This goes on for a while.

    Near the end of the act, Person A realizes they're enjoying some aspect of what is happening. Assume it's unknown to Person A exactly what they're feeling as it is happening, and feel free to conjecture on it.

    At the end of the act, Person A and Person B make up and remain together.

    Person A doesn't suffer through the feelings of betrayal of their trust, even though they did intend to end the relationship and did mean it when they asked Person B to stop. Even though Person B used physical coercion that Person A objected to at the moment that it happened--holding them down, pulling them by their hair, biting, face slapping--Person A looks back on the act specifically (that is to say, Person A is looking at this specific event and not just at the acts if they were to happen between two consenting adults) and feels aroused. Person A doesn't feel anger toward Person B for it." (this is a hypothetical situation taken from another site)

    -> one of the replies: "Both any physical response that would suggest enjoyment and any feeling of attachment can all happen with sex itself due to over flow of hormones and oxytocin, the bonding hormone. This is how many kidnapper rapists trap their victims and confuse them. The person may not feel anger or anything towards their rapist if they had a prior relationship. That combined with the hormone overflows can cause a false sense of attachment."

    Would you consider this rape? Why/why not?
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    Yes, the second she said stop and he carried on he had the intent of raping her
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    In my extremely and immensely scholarly opinion, Person A raped Person B
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    It is rape even if the woman enjoys it. The problem is that human sexuality is not PC and will smash the ultimate taboos.
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    By the legal definition of the word, yes.
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    If she enjoyed it she was sufficiently aroused and lubricated not to feel a lot of pain (unless that's her thing!), which means, physiologically speaking, her body liked it, yes, she enjoyed it! It's still rape though, she just happened to like it? Kind of like how girls like it rough and all that. It's a bit messed up tbh, I think women are a bit messed up tbh
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    (Original post by Abdukazam)
    In my extremely and immensely scholarly opinion, Person A raped Person B
    Did you get your letters mixed up, or are you just being facetious?
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    (Original post by Abdukazam)
    If she enjoyed it she was sufficiently aroused and lubricated not to feel a lot of pain (unless that's her thing!), which means, physiologically speaking, her body liked it, yes, she enjoyed it! It's still rape though, she just happened to like it? Kind of like how girls like it rough and all that. It's a bit messed up tbh, I think women are a bit messed up tbh
    Thousands of years of evolution has messed them up.
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    Yup, sounds definitively like rape to me.
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    Chances are that if you're asking the question 'is it rape if...' it's rape.
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    (Original post by anosmianAcrimony)
    Did you get your letters mixed up, or are you just being facetious?
    Yeah i'm being a knob
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    It's rape. Just because the 'victim' looks back on it and doesn't feel traumatized doesn't mean that it isn't. From Person B's perspective, there was no way to know whether Person A was enjoying it or not. Even if there was, there was still a clear vocalisation of lack of consent which should have stopped them.

    Arousal is a biological response which is separate from someone intentionally and willfully making the decision to have sex with someone.
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    (Original post by l'etranger)
    Thousands of years of evolution has messed them up.
    Millions of years of evolution has made them good at reproducing at the occasional expense to their emotional health.
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    (Original post by Boredomstrikes)
    Chances are that if you're asking the question 'is it rape if...' it's rape.
    This.

    It's the same with any thread titled "is it cheating if...". I basically just skip the OP, go down to the box, type yes, send, exit the thread and feel pretty confident I've answered the thread accurately.
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    (Original post by EC)
    Person B does not allow Person A to leave, which escalates into Person B physically restraining Person A.
    As soon as you get to this point, s75 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 is quite clear that A is taken not to have consented and B is to be taken not to have a reasonable belief in their consent without sufficient evidence that they were / did have a reasonable belief.

    'They started to enjoy it' is not a reasonable belief in consent.

    Even without that, 'Well, I knew A did mean it when they asked me to stop, but I hit them until they stopped saying that' is going to get any B convicted.

    Or, put another way, as someone said, when you ask questions like this, it's invariably rape.
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    (Original post by AndrewSCO)
    Yes, the second she said stop and he carried on he had the intent of raping her
    (Original post by Abdukazam)
    In my extremely and immensely scholarly opinion, Person A raped Person B
    (Original post by l'etranger)
    It is rape even if the woman enjoys it. The problem is that human sexuality is not PC and will smash the ultimate taboos.
    Yeah, but if person A considers atm it's not rape? Does it change anything?
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    (Original post by Abdukazam)
    If she enjoyed it she was sufficiently aroused and lubricated not to feel a lot of pain (unless that's her thing!), which means, physiologically speaking, her body liked it, yes, she enjoyed it! It's still rape though, she just happened to like it? Kind of like how girls like it rough and all that. It's a bit messed up tbh, I think women are a bit messed up tbh
    Well, I'm pretty sure you're messed up. We all are a little.
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    (Original post by EC)
    Yeah, but if person A considers atm it's not rape? Does it change anything?
    It's still within the definition of rape. I'm not for one moment trivialising rape because it's probably one of the worst things, but I do understand that some women will have that experience and even view it positively because our culture was developed by fairly civilised males who ascribe their own value system societal morals rather than considering the dark depths of female sexuality.
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    (Original post by unprinted)
    As soon as you get to this point, s75 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003 is quite clear that A is taken not to have consented and B is to be taken not to have a reasonable belief in their consent without sufficient evidence that they were / did have a reasonable belief.

    'They started to enjoy it' is not a reasonable belief in consent.

    Even without that, 'Well, I knew A did mean it when they asked me to stop, but I hit them until they stopped saying that' is going to get any B convicted.

    Or, put another way, as someone said, when you ask questions like this, it's invariably rape.
    The way I asked is irrelevant as I was trying to use my objectivity and not imply anything really.

    By the law, when Person A said no or stop, it became rape. I'm aware. But it is easy to see it as rape, even when the female maybe sometimes doesn't even genuinely mean it and then she wants it.
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    (Original post by EC)
    Well, I'm pretty sure you're messed up. We all are a little.
    Some of us more than others.

    I don't think it changes anything, but the view that rape is always wrong might slightly shift, that's not to say it is not in itself a horrible act, but if the woman enjoys it, and indeed, sees it positively, who am I to say it's morally wrong?
 
 
 
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