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    (Original post by Gigglebar)
    I dont know where all this rent stuff is coming from. i missed an £14 broadband payment. not like a £200 rent payment
    Now you have said that I side with you a bit more it's not much to borrow £14
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    Seriously though sign up to split the bills
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    Information is getting muddled. I missed a £14 broadband payment by 1 day. if this was to send someone into overdraft, then that would not cause an immediate fee. this would mean that he would have had to be in overdraft for about a week before the fee was initiated. I payed my share of the bill 1 day late. He must have already been in his overdraft to get the fee 1 day later. I PAID MY PART OF THE BILL. it was not rent, it was £14. whoever has less than £14 in their bank anyway is a dunce and waiting for an overdraft fee
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    (Original post by Sternumator)
    Yes, there is a contract between the bill payer and the company but OP has made a commitment to pay his share of the bills to the bill payer as well. That may be enforceable in law.

    You can't just not pay your bill because you made the agreement with an individual rather than a company.
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    (Original post by Gigglebar)
    I dont know where all this rent stuff is coming from. i missed an £14 broadband payment. not like a £200 rent payment
    If he can't handle the responsibility of keeping an extra twenty pounds in his account for whatever emergency, he shouldn't have signed up for the responsibility of paying a large bill in his name only. He wastes his overdraft on crap then realises he has no money when living expenses come around. You didn't plan for your account to get frozen out of spite towards him and you didn't waste all your money on rubbish. Citizens Advice will laugh at him and basically tell him to do one.
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    (Original post by ByronicHero)
    If you committed to paying on X day and didn't then it is your fault. The correct thing to do is to offer to pay, and the correct thing for him to do given your mitigating circumstances is to either refuse, or to offer to split the cost with you.

    Talk it through like adults ffs :facepalm2:

    OP I completely agree with Byronic. If there was an agreement to pay on C day and you failed to do so, then the responsibility is yours. If the bank held up your card unreasonably then make a claim. Better communication between both of you could have avoided this.
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    Yes but a fee doesnt happen if you are only in your overdraft 1 day. i paid my share of the bill 1 day late. therefore he must have already been in his overdraft.
    (Original post by niteninja1)
    Most students get a 0% overdraft of £1500 ish.

    Personally I get more but that's because I have a 5/5 credit rating
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    (Original post by 999tigger)
    Better communication between both of you could have avoided this.
    What, with psychic powers of premonition to predict the OP's account with no problems up to this point will get frozen out of the blue one day by their bank? Don't sign up to large bills with people you don't know (each with individual circumstances beyond your control) if you don't want to lose your money.
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    (Original post by Glassapple)
    What, with psychic powers of premonition to predict the OP's account with no problems up to this point will get frozen out of the blue one day by their bank? Don't sign up to large bills with people you don't know (each with individual circumstances beyond your control) if you don't want to lose your money.
    Its the ops responsibility to pay.on time, They didnt check, they are at least part or wholly to blame.

    If I was the bill payer and you refused to pay on the only in my name argument, then I would simply sue you and mess up your credit record at the same time.
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    (Original post by Gigglebar)
    Yes but a fee doesnt happen if you are only in your overdraft 1 day. i paid my share of the bill 1 day late. therefore he must have already been in his overdraft.
    Thats the point. You were late and there was a consequence of the late payment, which is your responsibiliyu to rectify. Why cnat you just sort it out like adults? there us going to be bad feeling in the flat/house over this for a long time unless you both deal with it as adults.
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    (Original post by 999tigger)
    Its the ops responsibility to pay.on time, They didnt check, they are at least part or wholly to blame.

    If I was the bill payer and you refused to pay on the only in my name argument, then I would simply sue you and mess up your credit record at the same time.
    With what evidence? My credit record would show I never signed anything, never had anything in my name, never agreed to anything in writing with that company. Yours would show you signed up for a large bill in your name only that you could not pay, that would go on your record. All you would have is "your word" that I said I'd pay XYZ on whatever date with no proof I ever said anything or wrote anything.

    Unless you had a contract with my signature on stating I would give you (or the company) X amount of money on X date then what have you got except crying to a company that I "promised" to pay? I can't take you to court for not contributing to payments for my phone bill when the company doesn't even know you exist, neither can you. I would be unknown to the company because my name wouldn't be on anything. You said it yourself, you would be the bill payer, not me. It is the bill payer's responsibility to pay the bill, not anyone else's, that is what a bill payer is and what the sign up for.
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    If you read the comment properly. He is telling me there is a £30 fee to pay. I missed a payment by 1 day. it was due the 9th, I paid yesterday. According to Santander (the bank he is with) there is a £1 per day fee for the overdraft once it reaches more than £12 overdraft. therefore technically i should only owe £1 cos i was 1 day late, lleaving him in the overdraft 1 day. He must have already been in the overdraft before to rack up a £30 fee
    (Original post by 999tigger)
    Thats the point. You were late and there was a consequence of the late payment, which is your responsibiliyu to rectify. Why cnat you just sort it out like adults? there us going to be bad feeling in the flat/house over this for a long time unless you both deal with it as adults.
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    (Original post by Glassapple)
    With what evidence? My credit record would show I never signed anything, never had anything in my name, never agreed to anything in writing with that company. Yours would show you signed up for a large bill in your name only that you could not pay, that would go on your record. All you would have is 'your word' that I said I'd pay XYZ on whatever date with no proof I ever said anything or write anything.
    I would simply take witness statements and include a copy of the tenancy agreement. I would also be able to show going into my account the payments from the other tenants and would have evidence of your late payment. When I added my own statement plus the bill, then the registrar could make their own mind up.

    You were a tenant. Everyone else was paying part of the bill. You had paid yours late or not at all. They would then listen to your version.

    If you ignore it I would win by default.
    If you respond then youd have to explain whether you were a tenant and what your reason for non payment was, especually when everyone else was paying.
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    (Original post by 999tigger)
    I would simply take witness statements and include a copy of the tenancy agreement. I would also be able to show going into my account the payments from the other tenants and would have evidence of your late payment. When I added my own statement plus the bill, then the registrar could make their own mind up.

    You were a tenant. Everyone else was paying part of the bill. You had paid yours late or not at all. They would then listen to your version.

    If you ignore it I would win by default.
    If you respond then youd have to explain whether you were a tenant and what your reason for non payment was, especually when everyone else was paying.
    Witness statements from annoyed students who of course couldn't be biased in any way? A tenancy agreement which makes no mention of specific companies, specific bills and how much to pay? The bill was in your name, you signed up for it, you pay it. Anyone else who may or may not decide to put money into your account to help you is irrelevant. A bill payer is who pays the bill and that is what they sign up for. Who says anyone else is actually paying?

    If they are not paying directly to the company (which they wouldn't be as their name wouldn't be on the bill), how could you prove the deposits into your own account were even from them, and that they weren't 'in kind' for something completely unrelated? You couldn't; bills have reference numbers and account numbers for this very reason. How can you sue someone who doesn't exist to the company? Your logic says you could sign up for anything at all then sue people who refuse to pay because "so and so said this".
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    (Original post by Glassapple)
    How and on who's word? Unless it's written someone where how will the friend prove it? If I pay a company £300 and then run to law enforcement and say that you personally promised to pay half then didn't, with no written proof, I'll get laughed out of there. If I smash a window and say someone else smashed it with me who can't be proved to be there at all and there is zero evidence of that person being involved, can they be prosecuted? No, same principle. Anybody could claim for anything on your logic.
    There does not need to be written proof. It is obvious by the circumstances and the fact that it has been paid previously that that there is an agreement between them for OP to pay a share of the bills. It isn't the done thing for people who don't know you to pick up your bills for you.

    It isn't prosecution it is civil so the standard of proof is lower. It can be inferred from the circumstances that more likely than not OP agreed to contribute to the bills. There is reason to think the OP agreed to pay. They were living in the house and they have paid it previously.

    In any case, OP would have to lie to a court and risk a perjury charge if they want to lie about it.

    Of course, in practice it won't be worth perusing because by the time lawyers are instructed and court is paid for, the amount is going to be too small but the legal principle really isn't that unless you have agreed in writing to pay, you are not liable and any payment is voluntary.
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    (Original post by Sternumator)
    There does not need to be written proof. It is obvious by the circumstances and the fact that it has been paid previously that that there is an agreement between them for OP to pay a share of the bills. It isn't the done thing for people who don't know you to pick up your bills for you.

    It isn't prosecution it is civil so the standard of proof is lower. It can be inferred from the circumstances that more likely than not OP agreed to contribute to the bills. There is reason to think the OP agreed to pay. They were living in the house and they have paid it previously.

    In any case, OP would have to lie to a court and risk a perjury charge if they want to lie about it.

    Of course, in practice it won't be worth perusing because by the time lawyers are instructed and court is paid for, the amount is going to be too small but the legal principle really isn't that unless you have agreed in writing to pay, you are not liable and any payment is voluntary.
    You can apply that to anything; it's obvious I robbed the pie shop because I have pie on my hands and regularly have pie on my hands. That's circumstantial evidence which wouldn't stand up in court. The deposits into the person's account would be viewed as 'in kind' as personal transactions. You see it all the time, like when PayPal has personal and business account options.
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    (Original post by Glassapple)
    With what evidence? My credit record would show I never signed anything, never had anything in my name, never agreed to anything in writing with that company. Yours would show you signed up for a large bill in your name only that you could not pay, that would go on your record. All you would have is "your word" that I said I'd pay XYZ on whatever date with no proof I ever said anything or wrote anything.

    Unless you had a contract with my signature on stating I would give you (or the company) X amount of money on X date then what have you got except crying to a company that I "promised" to pay? I can't take you to court for not contributing to payments for my phone bill when the company doesn't even know you exist, neither can you. I would be unknown to the company because my name wouldn't be on anything. You said it yourself, you would be the bill payer, not me. It is the bill payer's responsibility to pay the bill, not anyone else's, that is what a bill payer is and what the sign up for.
    I have the fact you are one of the tenants and the staments from the other tenats plus the letting agent or landlord that the bills were being shared. Are you a tenant there or not? Will you be prepared to lie on oath or not?

    I would also have the previous pauments received from you.
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    (Original post by 999tigger)
    I have the fact you are one of the tenants and the staments from the other tenats plus the letting agent or landlord that the bills were being shared. Are you a tenant there or not? Will you be prepared to lie on oath or not?
    Who says I'm not a tenant who doesn't get on with anyone else in the house and everyone else has an arrangement between themselves that I'm not aware of? Who says the amount of money to which companies at which dates on the tenancy agreement each person has signed is actually on there? Tenancy agreements do not say stuff like "£14.83 to be paid to tenant John Smith by all other tenants on the 3rd of every month for a British Gas payment with reference number of XXXXXX and failure to do so will result in XYZ".

    Previous payments received to your account would not be able to be known to be a bill as there would be no specific instructions and would be viewed as personal, 'in kind' deposits whenever I felt like it, regularly or not.
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    right guys, its just morals now. I was just questioning to see if i was legally obliged to pay.
    He has contacted the letting agency (no clue as to why cos it has nothing to do with the estate agents) and citizen advice. will keep you updated.
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    (Original post by Glassapple)
    Witness statements from annoyed students who of course couldn't be biased in any way? A tenancy agreement which makes no mention of specific companies, specific bills and how much to pay? The bill was in your name, you signed up for it, you pay it. Anyone else who may or may not decide to put money into your account to help you is irrelevant. A bill payer is who pays the bill and that is what they sign up for. Who says anyone else is actually paying?

    If they are not paying directly to the company (which they wouldn't be as their name wouldn't be on the bill), how could you prove the deposits into your own account were even from them, and that they weren't 'in kind' for something completely unrelated? You couldn't; bills have reference numbers and account numbers for this very reason. How can you sue someone who doesn't exist to the company? Your logic says you could sign up for anything at all then sue people who refuse to pay because "so and so said this".
    It would be up to the registrar to make up their own mind on the evidence presented.

    The tenancy agreement would have you down as one of the tenants.

    I would also have a record of payments from the other tenants and yourself from previous months when it didnt bounce. You prove its from them becayse it says where they come from plus they could confirm it in the statement. It would be rather a conicidence that they would all be for a fraction of the actual bill and there was missing 1 share i.e you.

    Ofc it would be shared bills. It would be you to prove otherwise once the presumption was raised.

    The registrar just looks at the surrounding evidence then decideds whose version he believes on the blanace of probabilyu. Yours requires you to lie on oath.
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    (Original post by Gigglebar)
    Information is getting muddled. I missed a £14 broadband payment by 1 day. if this was to send someone into overdraft, then that would not cause an immediate fee. this would mean that he would have had to be in overdraft for about a week before the fee was initiated. I payed my share of the bill 1 day late. He must have already been in his overdraft to get the fee 1 day later. I PAID MY PART OF THE BILL. it was not rent, it was £14. whoever has less than £14 in their bank anyway is a dunce and waiting for an overdraft fee
    .
    If you think he would have been in his overdraft anyway, which does sound likely, then don't pay. You are only responsible for costs that wouldn't have been incurred had you paid on time.

    However, if this fee has genuinely been incurred because you paid late then you should cover it. Are you realistically going to have a court enforce it on you? No.
 
 
 
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