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    There's something I really can't wrap my head around and need help explaining. When a rhesus negative mother is injected with anti-D antibodies during her first pregnancy with a rhesus positive baby, why does this injection not produce a response similar to what would happen if the mother was sensitised to produce anti-D and got pregnant with a second rhesus positive child? Why does the binding of the injected anti-D antibodies to the first baby's D antigens not cause haemolytic disease of the newborn due to agglutination etc. ?
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    My mock is tomorrow so need some help with this!
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    (Original post by VickiL867)
    My mock is tomorrow so need some help with this!
    Update: just did my mock and this question came up! Does anyone know the answer?
 
 
 
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