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    Okay, I've been debating whether or not to post this question but I can't really come to a completely valid conclusion on my own so : is cognitive dissonance present in the Stevenson novella? My theory is that because duality is only focused on 'one' character and not evident in any others surely it just makes the book just focus on a persona who is a murder half of the time. Since no one else experiences this duality in the novella, it could perhaps be regarded as cognitive dissonance? However, I understand the prominent element of exaggeration in 'Dr Jekyll And Mr Hyde' which ultimately makes the character of Mr Hyde seem even more evil,immoral and extremely dualised (if that could be possible, given his description) due to the lack of duality in the other characters that are met in the book. Not really sure if this makes sense but could someone just clarify if this is a valid point or not? Thank you!
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    This will help.
 
 
 
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