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    What would be the reason in the last part of question 18?
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    (Original post by gooner1010)
    What would be the reason in the last part of question 18?
    Drawing the graphs for tan(theta) and 1/theta both against theta (which would be on the x axis) would help you picture why. Tan(theta) will be an ascending curve and 1/theta a descending one.

    tan(pi/4) is 1 and 1/(pi/4) is 4/pi which is 1.273....
    This means that at pi/4 on the x axis, the matching y for tan(theta) is lower than for 1/theta. For tan(theta) to be equal to 1/theta, they will need to meet at one point which will need to be a lower y for the descending 1/theta and a higher y for the ascending tan(theta). Meaning that it will come after pi/4.

    If you still can't picture it after drawing the graph and the points and their matching y coordinate. Let me know and I can message you my sketch!
 
 
 
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