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Law Divorce - should it be 50% split? watch

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    After reading various comments on divorces. Should it be a 50:50 split of money etc?
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    Are you asking from a legal or moral point of view? Sorry, but if you're talking about the law, I'll shut up, I don't know English Law
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    Most certainly not.

    If I work hard my whole life too keep my wife, who subsequently cheats on me with the milkman, why should she be entitled to ANYTHING from me let alone half ?
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    (Original post by B00kwOrm)
    Are you asking from a legal or moral point of view? Sorry, but if you're talking about the law, I'll shut up, I don't know English Law
    In terms of how you see fit. Just reading that lottery thread and someone said that if he divorced he would have to give up half of his winnings to his ex-wife on the lottery. I don't see why personally.

    Hope this clears things up.
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    (Original post by NDGAARONDI)
    In terms of how you see fit. Just reading that lottery thread and someone said that if he divorced he would have to give up half of his winnings to his ex-wife on the lottery. I don't see why personally.

    Hope this clears things up.
    Ok then... Well, I do agree with tkfmbp... I think it depends on the circumstances of course. If the man earns a lot of money and beats his wife and she wants to divorce, surely she shouldn't be left on the street with nothing. But if she cheats on her husband with the milkman, she shouldn't get half her husband's money.

    Also, if they have children, it would have to be taken into account which parent they will live with and that parental should get more money.
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    Just thought about that: if it's a "clean" divorce, no mudd fight, both have worked hard and share everything, house, bank accounts etc., then 50-50 would seem appropriate.
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    It depends on a whole host of things. And it would be naive to say "yes, when someone divorces someone, they should get 50% of everything".

    If a person cheats, or if that person married them for money, if they are looking after children, if they are unable to be employed due to a disibility or another factor, etc. All these things count.
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    (Original post by Fleff)
    It depends on a whole host of things. And it would be naive to say "yes, when someone divorces someone, they should get 50% of everything".

    If a person cheats, or if that person married them for money, if they are looking after children, if they are unable to be employed due to a disibility or another factor, etc. All these things count.
    I agree... you can't fit it into such a simple formula.
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    (Original post by B00kwOrm)
    Just thought about that: if it's a "clean" divorce, no mudd fight, both have worked hard and share everything, house, bank accounts etc., then 50-50 would seem appropriate.
    i thought that is what the law is. adultery gets rid of the "50:50", and a mutual clean divorce allows the "50:50". there's always pre-nups before the wedding if you're a multi-millionaire as well.

    if all else fails and you really want rid of your wife and more than the 50% share, pay someone to seduce her, get the evidence and you walk away with everything.
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    (Original post by timeofyourlife)
    ... if all else fails and you really want rid of your wife and more than the 50% share, pay someone to seduce her, get the evidence and you walk away with everything.
    Hehe, thanks for the advice!!
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    (Original post by B00kwOrm)
    Hehe, thanks for the advice!!
    works every time :cool:
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    She's not getting half of my money, fullstop.
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    (Original post by timeofyourlife)
    works every time :cool:
    Oh, tried it before, have you??
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    (Original post by mobbdeeprob)
    She's not getting half of my money, fullstop.
    there's only so many ways in splitting a £5 note
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    or what some people do when they think thier marriage is not going well is hide everything. I heard of one guy who had a aston martin in a compound that his wife thought she sold, after the lawyer went through and tallied up all the materials, the wife didnt get the aston martin.

    Another guy i knew, when he heard his wife wanted a divorce, he sold his car, boat, and cabin for a dollar each to his friends. After the divorce, he bought it all back for 3 dollars.
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    Yes it should be, when you marry someone you enter into a legally binding contract, but the decision as to whether or not each party is allocated a 50:50 split should depend on the reasons for the contract being broken.
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    (Original post by canuck)
    After the divorce, he bought it all back for 3 dollars.
    ah, but that's a test of friendship more than anything.
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    (Original post by timeofyourlife)
    ah, but that's a test of friendship more than anything.
    I was going to say that, you need good friends to pull that off, I mean, where do you get a car, a boat and a cabin for $1 each?!! Divorce discount... everything has to go!!!
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    (Original post by B00kwOrm)
    Just thought about that: if it's a "clean" divorce, no mudd fight, both have worked hard and share everything, house, bank accounts etc., then 50-50 would seem appropriate.
    What if one works harder than another?

    This reminds me of a programme I saw on TV, Judge John Deed. Sir Iain Rochester would not divorce his current wife because she knew she would get half of the lot and he was not prepared to do this, even though she was basically cheating and the marriage had really become nullified. People talk about how sanctiful marriage is usually when they argue against single sex 'marriages', but how can tey be this sanctiful if the husband would lose what he earnt by himself and the marriage was nothing special?

    I realise this can happen the other way round too.
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    (Original post by timeofyourlife)
    ah, but that's a test of friendship more than anything.
    indeed! your ex partner could be very spiteful.
 
 
 
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