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    (Original post by SuperHuman98)
    I would say the answer depends on which you perspective you approach it from, as there are the various different players involved in conflict. For example, those who are high up in the social heirachy from their perspective violence is political an example is the Crusades which was political for the Pope, but not for most Crusaders who were fighting.
    I would argue in contemporary times the opposite is true - for the ruling hegemony violence is simply a distasteful result of international expansion and business. Overthrowing the Iranian government in the 50s wasn't a political move, it was a capitalistic one to ensure the monopolistic control of the oil by western powers. For the people of Iran, it was political however - it destroyed their budding democracy, undermined political stability and hence long term safety from violence, and indelibly affected the structure of the countries society for the half century hence.

    The violence of the police (state) in the US is not viewed as political by the privileged hegemony - it's seen as "peacekeeping" when peaceful protesters, who are protesting inequalities furthered by politics, are brutalised - an apolitical action to protect that privileged group. For the protesters subject to the violence it is however the demonstration of the political climate which causes their inequity, but they are seen as political agitators bringing "politics" into non-political circumstances.

    This rhetoric is mirrored frequently in media where any divergence from the norm of white, heteronormative, patriarchal media - such as the refocusing of a narrative to focus on the female perspective, the perspective of a person of colour or LGBT individual - which is thus painted as "bringing politics into a non political medium" even where the media itself has always been political, Star Trek being a topical example. ultimately this serves to re-cast the marginalised groups as aggressors and oppressors in order to justify the means taken that led to such marginalisation.
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    (Original post by Notnek)
    Did you post that after seeing my deleted posts above yours (that was meant for another thread)?

    If not, that’s a weird coincidence.
    Parrrrrrssibly
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    (Original post by artful_lounger)
    I would argue in contemporary times the opposite is true - for the ruling hegemony violence is simply a distasteful result of international expansion and business. Overthrowing the Iranian government in the 50s wasn't a political move, it was a capitalistic one to ensure the monopolistic control of the oil by western powers. For the people of Iran, it was political however - it destroyed their budding democracy, undermined political stability and hence long term safety from violence, and indelibly affected the structure of the countries society for the half century hence.

    The violence of the police (state) in the US is not viewed as political by the privileged hegemony - it's seen as "peacekeeping" when peaceful protesters, who are protesting inequalities furthered by politics, are brutalised - an apolitical action to protect that privileged group. For the protesters subject to the violence it is however the demonstration of the political climate which causes their inequity, but they are seen as political agitators bringing "politics" into non-political circumstances.

    This rhetoric is mirrored frequently in media where any divergence from the norm of white, heteronormative, patriarchal media - such as the refocusing of a narrative to focus on the female perspective, the perspective of a person of colour or LGBT individual - which is thus painted as "bringing politics into a non political medium" even where the media itself has always been political, Star Trek being a topical example. ultimately this serves to re-cast the marginalised groups as aggressors and oppressors in order to justify the means taken that led to such marginalisation.
    Remind me, when are you re-applying to uni?
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    (Original post by Maker)
    25 gold coins each for the 4 most senior pirates.
    Not the official answer.

    I did worse and started thinking about the piratey nature of the question and that as captain it'd be beneficial for the other pirates to feel fairly treated if they weren't going to murder you in your sleep.

    Obviously there's a successful team at the moment and as captain you want your pirate crew at full strength and obeying your orders for the future raids you've got planned.
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    (Original post by Doonesbury)
    Remind me, when are you re-applying to uni?

    Spoiler:
    Show

    also prsom xD
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    Ruler one - can't believe everyone hasn't done it for themselves hundreds of times let alone been shown it by a teacher...

    Maybe I was an abnormally fidgety child but I'm pretty sure that was the second thing I ever did with a ruler when I was old enough to pick one up
    (The first was of course twanging it over the side of the table)
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    (Original post by Joinedup)
    Not the official answer.

    I did worse and started thinking about the piratey nature of the question and that as captain it'd be beneficial for the other pirates to feel fairly treated if they weren't going to murder you in your sleep.

    Obviously there's a successful team at the moment and as captain you want your pirate crew at full strength and obeying your orders for the future raids you've got planned.
    The key is the fourth most senior pirate, how do you make sure he votes to accept the division while giving the four most senior pirates the highest amount of gold. If the fourth most senior pirate rejects the division, the number of pirates is reduced to 6 and so it goes down.

    Its not really a question about pirates.
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    (Original post by StevetheIcecube)
    Someone is getting into Oxford and it isn't me :P

    I was thinking more in the context of modern history - eg general strikes in Italy in the early 20th century. The strike is, at a glance, economic; the people striking want to be paid better and they want rights while working. But they were also striking in support of the socialists, and a particular angle to socialism. (And yes, this was violence - some groups forcibly occupied their factories/declared whole cities independent from the state and they fought back when attacked)
    I agree I would have also added to my answer how violence does become more politicised among ordinary people as you drift towards more modern history . I guess like you said the rise of ideologies, while with my example those fighting were less educated than those in modern times. I was also thinjing that the Vietnam war is a good modern example of political violence
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    (Original post by Maker)
    The key is the fourth most senior pirate, how do you make sure he votes to accept the division while giving the four most senior pirates the highest amount of gold. If the fourth most senior pirate rejects the division, the number of pirates is reduced to 6 and so it goes down.

    Its not really a question about pirates.
    Have you seen the 'official' answer?

    The correct thing to do is apparently treat it your were analysing the 'game' of Nim
    and work backward from the situation where there's 2 pirates left alive by figuring out what the least generous offer that would have kept the last pirate overboard alive.
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    (Original post by artful_lounger)
    I would argue in contemporary times the opposite is true - for the ruling hegemony violence is simply a distasteful result of international expansion and business. Overthrowing the Iranian government in the 50s wasn't a political move, it was a capitalistic one to ensure the monopolistic control of the oil by western powers. For the people of Iran, it was political however - it destroyed their budding democracy, undermined political stability and hence long term safety from violence, and indelibly affected the structure of the countries society for the half century hence.

    The violence of the police (state) in the US is not viewed as political by the privileged hegemony - it's seen as "peacekeeping" when peaceful protesters, who are protesting inequalities furthered by politics, are brutalised - an apolitical action to protect that privileged group. For the protesters subject to the violence it is however the demonstration of the political climate which causes their inequity, but they are seen as political agitators bringing "politics" into non-political circumstances.

    This rhetoric is mirrored frequently in media where any divergence from the norm of white, heteronormative, patriarchal media - such as the refocusing of a narrative to focus on the female perspective, the perspective of a person of colour or LGBT individual - which is thus painted as "bringing politics into a non political medium" even where the media itself has always been political, Star Trek being a topical example. ultimately this serves to re-cast the marginalised groups as aggressors and oppressors in order to justify the means taken that led to such marginalisation.
    I definitely agree, as you go further up history from the middle ages violence does become more politicised. For example, rebellions under the Tudors , and then reveloutions such as the American Reveloution (ideas such as those in Thomas Paines "Common Sense" played a role and it was also politicised in Britain not just New England). I think its as education starts to become wide spread and the rise of ideologies which makes violence more politicised for those lower down in society.
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    (Original post by Joinedup)
    Have you seen the 'official' answer?

    The correct thing to do is apparently treat it your were analysing the 'game' of Nim
    and work backward from the situation where there's 2 pirates left alive by figuring out what the least generous offer that would have kept the last pirate overboard alive.
    I had a similar argument, I was going to tell the fourth most senior pirate that if he did not vote in favour of the 25 each between the 4 most senior pirates, it would end up with just 2 most junior pirates.
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    Could it be argued that nowadays we tend to try and attach political views to otherwise apolitical acts because it can feed the modern media's desire for sensationalism? For instance, the fight for greater civil rights is often portrayed as left-wing, yet there is nothing exclusively left-wing about the demand for equal treatment. Saying it simply allows the media to categorise the groups so as to dramatise it and make it more of a 'them and us' scenario.
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    (Original post by Doonesbury)
    Pirates favourite author: Aaaargatha Christie
    Agatharrr
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    (Original post by Sarahbera)
    Agatharrr
    That works too, Sarahberarrr.
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    (Original post by Doonesbury)
    That works too, Sarahberarrr.
    harr har
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    How would Oxford do during a visit from me?
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    NOTE to self - Read and respond to this (particularly the History question) later.:cool:
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    (Original post by Doonesbury)
    we don’t assume that all applicants will have read the same things. Many candidates have never studied Latin or Greek before at all, so we certainly wouldn’t assume that they had any particular knowledge
    People apply to Classics without having read the Aeneid?! And many have never studied Latin (or Greek)? I hope this is the usual PR operation by recruiters to convince us to apply. Nevertheless, I should have done so, instead of choosing finance.
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    (Original post by usualsuspects)
    People apply to Classics without having read the Aeneid?! And many have never studied Latin (or Greek)? I hope this is the usual PR operation by recruiters to convince us to apply. Nevertheless, I should have done so, instead of choosing finance.
    They have 2 courses, Classics II is if you haven't studied Latin ot Greek previously : http://www.classics.ox.ac.uk/classics-ii.html
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    (Original post by Doonesbury)
    They have 2 courses, Classics II is if you haven't studied Latin ot Greek previously : http://www.classics.ox.ac.uk/classics-ii.html
    For personal curiosity, is it hard to get into Classics (the IA one)? Are there (many) compulsory (Greek) linguistics exams?
 
 
 
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