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    Hi
    can anyone could help me out with understanding elements of land law. I'm trying to look at this problem scenario and work out the areas I need to be looking at:

    ''When P viewed a property it was virtually empty, contained no personal belongings or furniture. Turns out the seller V had rented the property the previous year
    for a term of 2 years to T. T did not move into the house as she had been on a
    trip abroad but now she wants to move into the house. She hasn't breached any
    terms of the legal lease. Now P has purchased the property he wants to live in
    the home himself, but is he bound by the terms/legal lease granted to T?''


    Does T have the right to remain in the property until the end of the 2 year agreement with it being a 2 year fixed term as she has not broken any terms of the agreement made with V? Wouldn't V had to have given P indication that he would have to take over T's tenancy agreement?

    Any help/ideas greatly appreciated

    Thanks
 
 
 

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