can anyone could help me out with understanding elements of land law. I'm trying to look at this problem scenario and work out the areas I need to be looking at:
''When P viewed a property it was virtually empty, contained no personal belongings or furniture. Turns out the seller V had rented the property the previous year
for a term of 2 years to T. T did not move into the house as she had been on a
trip abroad but now she wants to move into the house. She hasn't breached any
terms of the legal lease. Now P has purchased the property he wants to live in
the home himself, but is he bound by the terms/legal lease granted to T?''
Does T have the right to remain in the property until the end of the 2 year agreement with it being a 2 year fixed term as she has not broken any terms of the agreement made with V? Wouldn't V had to have given P indication that he would have to take over T's tenancy agreement?
Any help/ideas greatly appreciated
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