Surely, only women can, since the genotype required is recessive.
So how can a man be affected, when he is XY and needs XX to be affected.
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How can a male be affected by an x-linked recessive disorder? watch
- Thread Starter
- 24-10-2017 14:46
- 24-10-2017 14:55
Because the gene in question is only found on the X chromosome, so if your chromosomes are XX, you need two copies of the mutated allele to be affected, whereas with XY, you only need one, because you don't have another X chromosome with a dominant allele to 'cancel out' the effect of the recessive one.