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    (Original post by SWISH99)
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    So, what have you done and where are you stuck?
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    (Original post by ghostwalker)
    So, what have you done and where are you stuck?
    not sure how to explain it
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    (Original post by SWISH99)
    not sure how to explain it
    P(A|B) < P(A)

    Means, the probabilty of A happening is reduced if B has occurred.

    And from this you've deduced, the probability of B happening is reduced if A has occurred.

    So, the presence of either event adversely effects the probability of the other occuring.
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    (Original post by ghostwalker)
    P(A|B) < P(A)

    Means, the probabilty of A happening is reduced if B has occurred.

    And from this you've deduced, the probability of B happening is reduced if A has occurred.

    So, the presence of either event adversely effects the probability of the other occuring.
    Ok I understand this part. But how do you show that the probability of B happening is reduced if A has occurred
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    (Original post by SWISH99)
    Ok I understand this part. But how do you show that the probability of B happening is reduced if A has occurred
    I thougth from your first post, that you'd done that part.
    Start with Bayes' theorem, and rearrange it to get P(A|B)/P(A) on one side. What do you know about the value of this, and hence the value of the other side, and hence...

    See what you can do.
 
 
 
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