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To what extent does the ruling of the Supreme Court in Miller V Secretary of State for exiting the European Union 2017 reaffirm the sovereignty of parliament?
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What are your thoughts, first off?
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BabyRam
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Original post by Notorious_B.I.G.
Do you want us to write it for you?

What are your thoughts, first off?


Yeah I do.....

I don’t understand the question in depth am just think that I need to explain why the uk has left the eu and who Miller Brought the case against parliament.
Original post by BabyRam
Yeah I do.....

I don’t understand the question in depth am just think that I need to explain why the uk has left the eu and who Miller Brought the case against parliament.


With respect, it seems you are completely ignorant of the judgment. It is not about Brexit; it is about the legality of the executive notifying the EU that the UK intends to leave and, in effect, undoing the "spirit" of the European Communities Act 1972. It was concluded that the executive did not have the authority to notify the EU of its intention to leave, without first consulting Parliament.

It is quite obvious that the question given to you relates to parliamentary sovereignty. Do not, do not make any attempt to explain why the UK has left the EU. A cursory mention of an intention to leave in order to reclaim supposedly lost powers might be useful for context. But your question is not about Brexit.
(edited 6 years ago)
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BabyRam
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Thanks now is have an understanding of the question and will surely get there

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