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    hi, i have a problem with distictly/indistinctly applicable measure.
    in the prof notes i read that:
    "distinctly applicable measures are those which directly affect the product when it is imported/exported"
    while
    "indistinctly applicable measure are those that do not favour domestic producers over importers, but treats national and imported products in the same way"
    so, for what i have understood, indistinctly applicable measures are allowed and distinctly applicable measures are not allowed?
    and, what is the relevance of Cassis Dijon decision for indistinctly applicable measures?
    and finally, why selling arrangements are important for indistinctly applicable measures in the Keck and mithouard case?

    before going to the prof and ask these questions, i would like to understand better this topic
    thank you,
 
 
 
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