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    Are there any cases where (ideally) a spousal (but parent, child also) presumtion of a close tie of love and affection has been rebutted? I can't seem to find any but I am sure there must be, perhaps I am narrowing my search enough.

    As it stands (preparing for a moot) I am citing Alcock for the authority that it can be rebutted and taking a hallistic approach of all the facts to logically determine a lack of a sufficiently proximate relationship.

    Secondary victim claiming is the wife of the immediate victim. They have been separated for 10 years however, he has moved out of the family home and after the event they subsequently divorced (before the accident they were in divorce proceedings).

    On the flip side she was still listed as his emergency contact, stayed with him overnight for a week and took him to the 'family home' for recovery after hospital discharge.

    Cheers in advance
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