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    So the mark scheme doesn't ever account for the line being through the origin, it always wants you to have it in the other position to form a vector triangle.

    They are the exact same thing if we are to consider them as vectors, but I guess they want us to treat them like cartesian equation translations?

    Am I supposed to state z=x+yi, therefore z2 would be (x-2)+yi?

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    Just going to bump this.
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    I’ll just tag a few people so they can see it. RDKGames ghostwalker Notnek
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    (Original post by darkforest)
    So the mark scheme doesn't ever account for the line being through the origin, it always wants you to have it in the other position to form a vector triangle.

    They are the exact same thing if we are to consider them as vectors, but I guess they want us to treat them like cartesian equation translations?

    Am I supposed to state z=x+yi, therefore z2 would be (x-2)+yi?

    Ummm idk about this because I'm only in Year 11 but I have a obsessive interest in the Complex plane. I'm sorry if this is wrong.

    I think that because the x coordinates are 0, you're doing -2 to that, which is 0-2, which is 2. But it would be |-2| which is just 2, which I think the mark scheme is saying.
    Sorry if I'm wrong.
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    (Original post by darkforest)
    Just going to bump this.
    What’s the full question?

    I dont understand what you’re asking
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    (Original post by RDKGames)
    What’s the full question?

    I dont understand what you’re asking
    Well see how I’ve gave two answers to each of the statements/equations, the mark scheme always has the version labelled “on the mark scheme” and not the other one which is equivalent yet wrong for some reason. They’re just in different positions.

    I was wondering if I DO actually have to translate the loci (like they have) instead of keeping it about the origin.


    Sorry for the confusion, it’s possible that I’m just overcomplicating the question or being awkward.
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    (Original post by darkforest)
    Well see how I’ve gave two answers to each of the statements/equations, the mark scheme always has the version labelled “on the mark scheme” and not the other one which is equivalent yet wrong for some reason. They’re just in different positions.

    I was wondering if I DO actually have to translate the loci (like they have) instead of keeping it about the origin.


    Sorry for the confusion, it’s possible that I’m just overcomplicating the question or being awkward.
    Yeah it is quite awkward as it is right now so I don't even know where to begin answering.

    If you post an actual question on which this ambiguity applies to you, then we can start from there.
 
 
 
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