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    Hi all,

    I have a property law question that is driving me a bit mental.

    Brief background

    X owns a large freehold farm ("Posh Farm", title of which is unregistered when purchased in 1985.

    Rose Cottage is part of Posh Farm.

    In 2012, X sold Rose Cottage to Y.

    In 2015, Y sold Rose Cottage back to X.

    Query

    I understand that when X sold Rose Cottage to Y in 2012 this would have triggered first registration of Rose Cottage (s4 LRA 2002).

    My question, however, is as follows: would Posh Farm also have been become registered land? Alternatively, would only Rose Cottage have become registered land and Posh Farm remained unregistered?

    I'm pretty sure the the latter position is correct. But I can't find any authority for the answer.

    Thanks so much for any help.
 
 
 
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