Not sure if this is in the right place, but here goes...
I'm auditing a company which has 3 directors and prepares accounts under FRS 101. One of the directors is paid by this company but the other 2 are paid by a parent company. We've audited the remuneration for this 1 director and they've got the disclosure for salary, pension etc.
However, my manager has queried whether we need to look at the remuneration for the other 2 and whether we need to get the client to apportion some of their pay to this entity and include this is in the disclosure stating that X amount of pay for Directors A & B relates to this entity however has been paid by another company in the group?
I've been trawling online for guidance on remuneration, but I'm getting conflicting information. The client has never disclosed it like this before (all they usually state is that the other directors are remunerated by another co. in the group and that's it) so I'm inclined to think that as long as the parent makes the appropriate disclosures in their accounts then it's fine?
My manager has been unavailable so I can't even ask her so I thought some bright minds on here might be able to point me towards the right standard to help me out.
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- Thread Starter
Last edited by chester.; 23-02-2018 at 09:37. Reason: Typo
- 23-02-2018 09:37
- Community Assistant
- 23-02-2018 17:17
It’s a CA06 disclosure and so won’t vary between accounting standards. I know the disclosure threshold is £200k in aggregate for highest paid director to be disclosable. Most large groups have this sort of arrangement and I think it’s just remuneration directly from the sub as the full disclosure is covered at group level but not 100% sure.