Hey guys, in an ex-agnostic who converted to Islam because I saw it as the only religion and belief system (including atheism) with evidence and no contradictions. Anyways, I'm not here to debate about Islam and please don't do so because I've had plenty of those already and will be dealing with the same arguments again.
My question is this:
Read Isaiah 42. It talks about a new servant of god that will come and deliver a new message. In my opinion, this cannot refer to anyone except the prophet Muhammad and I'll explain why.
It starts off by mentioning
“Here is my servant, whom I uphold,
my chosen one in whom I delight;
I will put my Spirit on him,
and he will bring justice to the nations."
God also mentions in the next few verses
6 “I, the Lord, have called you in righteousness;
I will take hold of your hand.
I will keep you and will make you
to be a covenant for the people
and a light for the Gentiles,
7 to open eyes that are blind"
This cannot refer to Jesus because this servant is being sent to the gentiles where as Jesus was sent "to the lost sheep of Israel." Prophet Muhammad on the other hand was sent to idol worshippers.
*But this is really where it shows this is the prophet Muhammad*
Further into the chapter, God mentions the location of this prophet
"let the settlements where Kedar lives rejoice.
Let the people of Sela sing for joy;
let them shout from the mountaintops."
Kedar in the bible is known to be from Arabia as shown by the following verse
Arabia and all the princes of Kedar were your customers; they did business with you in lambs, rams and goats. (Ezekiel 27:21)
Moreover, it mentions let the people of Sela sing for joy from the mountaintops. There is only once city in Arabia with a mountain called Sela and that is medina which was the city of the prophet Muhammad.
So my question is, who can God be referring to in Isaiah 42 other than prophet Muhammad and if you do agree that this is the prophet Muhammad, then shouldn't you be following his message and his religion?
...for the 2nd time this year