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    why is the upper bound of 70<(or equal to) x < 100 70?
    i thought it would be 100.

    for other cumulative frequencies i have done it has always been this? so why is this different

    this is from question 6v)
    http://mei.org.uk/files/papers/s108ja_leqa.pdf
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    (Original post by esmeralda123)
    why is the upper bound of 70<(or equal to) x < 100 70?
    i thought it would be 100.
    It is 100.

    In the table the 70 is in parentheses, it's an extra class that's been added in prior to the 70\leq x &lt; 100 class, to give you the zero cumulative frequency.
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    (Original post by ghostwalker)
    It is 100.

    In the table the 70 is in parentheses, it's an extra class that's been added in prior to the 70\leq x &lt; 100 class, to give you the zero cumulative frequency.
    ok thank you
    for the next question it asks to find the 90th percentile
    i know that they need to find the 43.2 -> 43rd value but how did they get 166 from the grouped data?
    what formula or method did they use to find it, i know that it lies in the category 150-170 because the frequency there is 45
 
 
 
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