Tort of nuisance.Watch
I understand that the nuisances overlap so may be changed in court if numerous claims came forward in private nuisance directed at the same matter. However, when it comes to making a claim in the tort of public nuisance, do you have to be certain that others are affected by it, rather than an assumption that they would be?
Not entirely sure that's as clear as I'm trying to make out but hopefully it can be understood.
Thank you x