I thought so too, but the introduction of the book doesn't use Jacobean but rather Elizabethan. For instance, (taken from Macbeth book intro) "Lennox's description of the 'unruly' night would have been full significant to the Elizabethans"
Trying to be dogmatic about such things is futile. Shakepeare was an Elizabethan, now writing in the Jacobean period. It really matters little. It is just a convenient handle, unless you have a thesis that the new king ushered in a complete and instant change in literary endeavour.
Trying to be dogmatic about such things is futile. Shakepeare was an Elizabethan, now writing in the Jacobean period. It really matters little. It is just a convenient handle, unless you have a thesis that the new king ushered in a complete and instant change in literary endeavour.
Not being dogmatic, I just want to write conspicuously tomorrow so I wanted to be certain of what contextual notions I must include. Jacobean would be undeniably convenient but I was in a dilemma. Thank you anyways