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Guys what does this mean

I’m kinda new to English and I’m finding it to understand this statement. Can someone tell me simply what it means in simple English.

“it will not relieve the person who inflicted the wound from the guilt of homicide that that best medical skill or care had not been got."

Your help is much appreciated!!!

Thank you X
Guys I’m kinda new to English and I don’t understood what this mean

“it will not relieve the person who inflicted the wound from the guilt of homicide that that best medical skill or care had not been got."

Can someone tell what this mean?

Thanks
Your help is appreciated
I'm not sure. The sentence structure is confusing.

Maybe it means that, if one person wounds another in a way that could have been nonfatal if treated properly, but it isn't treated properly and the person dies, the first person is still guilty of homicide? Does that make sense in context?
Original post by anosmianAcrimony
I'm not sure. The sentence structure is confusing.

Maybe it means that, if one person wounds another in a way that could have been nonfatal if treated properly, but it isn't treated properly and the person dies, the first person is still guilty of homicide? Does that make sense in context?



Thank u for taking ur time! Means a lot but I still cannot understand this. This is the whole passage. Please help me again if u can x

“On the other hand, if a man inflicts an injury which if left to itself will result in death, or of which death is the probable result - which is calculated to lead to death, though it may be capable of cure by the best attention of the best medical skill - then though the man might have recovered if he had had these, it will not relieve the person who inflicted the wound from the guilt of homicide that that best medical skill or care had not been got."
I'm an English native, and I'm having a little trouble understanding that.
My best guess is "It won't make the person who killed the victim feel any better, knowing that the victim didn't get the best help they could have"
Hope that helps, sorry if it doesn't.
Original post by Glitter 321xx
Thank u for taking ur time! Means a lot but I still cannot understand this. This is the whole passage. Please help me again if u can x

“On the other hand, if a man inflicts an injury which if left to itself will result in death, or of which death is the probable result - which is calculated to lead to death, though it may be capable of cure by the best attention of the best medical skill - then though the man might have recovered if he had had these, it will not relieve the person who inflicted the wound from the guilt of homicide that that best medical skill or care had not been got."

I think it means this:

Imagine that person A stabs person B with the intention of killing B, and then leaves. Person B does not immediately die, but dies from blood loss some time later. If person B had received medical attention, he probably would not have bled to death. Person A could conceivably make this legal defense: ''It isn't my fault B didn't receive medical attention! He might have survived, so I am not guilty of homicide.'' The passage you've posted states that person A's defense isn't valid. It states that the unavailability of medical attention for person B doesn't make person A less guilty of homicide.

Does that make sense?
Reply 6
good answer.
Reply 7
Original post by Glitter 321xx
I’m kinda new to English and I’m finding it to understand this statement. Can someone tell me simply what it means in simple English.

“it will not relieve the person who inflicted the wound from the guilt of homicide that that best medical skill or care had not been got."

Your help is much appreciated!!!

Thank you X


I think it means 'It won't help the person who killed the victim feel any better knowing that the victim didn't get the best medical help'
Original post by anosmianAcrimony
I think it means this:

Imagine that person A stabs person B with the intention of killing B, and then leaves. Person B does not immediately die, but dies from blood loss some time later. If person B had received medical attention, he probably would not have bled to death. Person A could conceivably make this legal defense: ''It isn't my fault B didn't receive medical attention! He might have survived, so I am not guilty of homicide.'' The passage you've posted states that person A's defense isn't valid. It states that the unavailability of medical attention for person B doesn't make person A less guilty of homicide.

Does that make sense?


Yessss thank u so much!!!! X OMG it finally made sense to me
Original post by Glitter 321xx
Guys I’m kinda new to English and I don’t understood what this mean

“it will not relieve the person who inflicted the wound from the guilt of homicide that that best medical skill or care had not been got."

Can someone tell what this mean?

Thanks
Your help is appreciated


Hi there :hi:
Have just merged your threads.
For future reference, please don't create a thread on the same thing twice.
Instead, make one and then if you don't get any responses, after a while you can 'bump' it by posting in it :ahee:

Hope this doesn't confuse anyone too much :bump:
Original post by Lala143
I think it means 'It won't help the person who killed the victim feel any better knowing that the victim didn't get the best medical help'


I don't think 'feeling better' is in the cards. I think 'being charged' - i.e. legally - is the issue. If the victim dies, the assailant can justifiably be charged with murder, if a> he intended to kill the victim, and b> the victim dies, even though 'top-notch' medical care might have saved him. In point of fact, such care did NOT save him, and the assailant is guilty (legally) of murder (or manslaughter (if you are unsure of being able to prove murder). Cheers.
Original post by Glitter 321xx
Yessss thank u so much!!!! X OMG it finally made sense to me


You're welcome!

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