Binomial Distribution Watch

Klara_b155
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#1
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#1
If the chance of winning a car is 1 /28561, why is the expected number of trials 28560?
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The A-level kid
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Because that's the minimum number of trials you expect to do before winning a car theoretically.
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Klara_b155
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but why not 28561? I'm a bit confused
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