silent
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#1
Report Thread starter 11 years ago
#1
we have integral 4/((x(x+4)) and allegedly this is equal to integral of 1/x - 1/(x+4).

Where did that come from? (Probably really simple )
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qgujxj39
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#2
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#2
Use partial fractions, I think.
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silent ninja
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#3
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partial fractions, do you know how to do them?
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silent
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#4
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yep, it was just it was worth 1 mark and I was like :/. 1 mark for partial fractions may be a bit harsh.

thanks
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qgujxj39
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#5
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One mark? They'd usually give about 3 for something like that, wouldn't they?
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Zhen Lin
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#6
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If it's 1 mark, then just take the partial fraction decomposition they've given and put it over a common denominator. Much easier than going the other way.
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qgujxj39
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#7
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(Original post by Zhen Lin)
If it's 1 mark, then just take the partial fraction decomposition they've given and put it over a common denominator. Much easier than going the other way.
Good point. Showing that RHS = LHS is just as valid a proof as showing that LHS = RHS.
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