# simple questionWatch

Announcements
Thread starter 11 years ago
#1
we have integral 4/((x(x+4)) and allegedly this is equal to integral of 1/x - 1/(x+4).

Where did that come from? (Probably really simple )
0
reply
11 years ago
#2
Use partial fractions, I think.
0
reply
11 years ago
#3
partial fractions, do you know how to do them?
0
reply
Thread starter 11 years ago
#4
yep, it was just it was worth 1 mark and I was like :/. 1 mark for partial fractions may be a bit harsh.

thanks
0
reply
11 years ago
#5
One mark? They'd usually give about 3 for something like that, wouldn't they?
0
reply
11 years ago
#6
If it's 1 mark, then just take the partial fraction decomposition they've given and put it over a common denominator. Much easier than going the other way.
0
reply
11 years ago
#7
(Original post by Zhen Lin)
If it's 1 mark, then just take the partial fraction decomposition they've given and put it over a common denominator. Much easier than going the other way.
Good point. Showing that RHS = LHS is just as valid a proof as showing that LHS = RHS.
0
reply
X

Write a reply...
Reply
new posts
Back
to top
Latest
My Feed

### Oops, nobody has postedin the last few hours.

Why not re-start the conversation?

see more

### See more of what you like onThe Student Room

You can personalise what you see on TSR. Tell us a little about yourself to get started.

### University open days

• University of Surrey
Postgraduate Open Afternoon Postgraduate
Wed, 23 Oct '19
• University of Bristol
Undergraduate Open Afternoon Undergraduate
Wed, 23 Oct '19
• University of Exeter
Undergraduate Open Day - Penryn Campus Undergraduate
Wed, 23 Oct '19

### Poll

Join the discussion

Yes (10)
21.74%
No (36)
78.26%

View All
Latest
My Feed

### Oops, nobody has postedin the last few hours.

Why not re-start the conversation?

### See more of what you like onThe Student Room

You can personalise what you see on TSR. Tell us a little about yourself to get started.