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What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?
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#2
(Original post by AbiHorn)
What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?
What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?
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(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
That one or more forms of the verb go against the standard endings. So for example, a regular -ar verb will have predictable endings in all of the tenses. Usually if one or more of those conjugations is the odd one out then the verb is irregular.
That one or more forms of the verb go against the standard endings. So for example, a regular -ar verb will have predictable endings in all of the tenses. Usually if one or more of those conjugations is the odd one out then the verb is irregular.

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#4
So for example the verb "to be able" is "poder". And if it were regular the conjugations would keep the "o" stem. The conjugations for present tense would therefore be:
Yo podo
Tú podes
Él pode
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos poden.
But because it's stem-changing, the "o" stem mutates to "ue" in all but the "nosotros" and "vosotros" forms. So the correct conjugations for present tense are:
Yo puedo
Tú puedes
Él puede
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos pueden
There are other stem changers, such as "e" to "ie" (e.g. querer ---> yo quiero) and "e" to "i" (e.g. pedir ---> yo pido).
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(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
Yes, it's a verb where the stem changes.
So for example the verb "to be able" is "poder". And if it were regular the conjugations would keep the "o" stem. The conjugations for present tense would therefore be:
Yo podo
Tú podes
Él pode
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos poden.
But because it's stem-changing, the "o" stem mutates to "ue" in all but the "nosotros" and "vosotros" forms. So the correct conjugations for present tense are:
Yo puedo
Tú puedes
Él puede
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos pueden
There are other stem changers, such as "e" to "ie" (e.g. querer ---> yo quiero) and "e" to "i" (e.g. pedir ---> yo pido).
Yes, it's a verb where the stem changes.
So for example the verb "to be able" is "poder". And if it were regular the conjugations would keep the "o" stem. The conjugations for present tense would therefore be:
Yo podo
Tú podes
Él pode
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos poden.
But because it's stem-changing, the "o" stem mutates to "ue" in all but the "nosotros" and "vosotros" forms. So the correct conjugations for present tense are:
Yo puedo
Tú puedes
Él puede
Nosotros podemos
Vosotros podéis
Ellos pueden
There are other stem changers, such as "e" to "ie" (e.g. querer ---> yo quiero) and "e" to "i" (e.g. pedir ---> yo pido).
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#6
(Original post by AbiHorn)
So when would you have to put Yo/Tu/el/nosotros/vosotros/ellos in front of the verb? Why does this happen? Adn is there a way to know or is it just down to learning and practicing ?
So when would you have to put Yo/Tu/el/nosotros/vosotros/ellos in front of the verb? Why does this happen? Adn is there a way to know or is it just down to learning and practicing ?
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For example, if I wrote 'tengo' that would translate to I have, but if i wrote 'Yo tengo' that would also be correct?
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#8
(Original post by AbiHorn)
For example, if I wrote 'tengo' that would translate to I have, but if i wrote 'Yo tengo' that would also be correct?
For example, if I wrote 'tengo' that would translate to I have, but if i wrote 'Yo tengo' that would also be correct?
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(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
Yes, both mean "I have", but "tengo" is far more commonly used than "yo tengo".
Yes, both mean "I have", but "tengo" is far more commonly used than "yo tengo".

Why are there two verbs for certain 'things'? 'To cause' ( ocasionar and provocar)?
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#10
(Original post by AbiHorn)
So I'm guessing it is just preference? I tend not to use the pronouns anyway
Confuses me more
So I'm guessing it is just preference? I tend not to use the pronouns anyway

Why are there two verbs for certain 'things'? 'To cause' ( ocasionar and provocar)?

Don't know, most languages have several words for some nouns and verbs. I'd say "provocar" is far more frequently used than "ocasionar".
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#11
(Original post by AbiHorn)
What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?
What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?
A regular verb will follow the pattern .
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(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
It's actually not preference, all Spanish speakers will use "tengo" 99% of the time, it's usually only when you want to emphasise that you'd insert "yo".
There's also "causar"
Don't know, most languages have several words for some nouns and verbs. I'd say "provocar" is far more frequently used than "ocasionar".
It's actually not preference, all Spanish speakers will use "tengo" 99% of the time, it's usually only when you want to emphasise that you'd insert "yo".
There's also "causar"

Don't know, most languages have several words for some nouns and verbs. I'd say "provocar" is far more frequently used than "ocasionar".

And what is imperfect used for, conditional and subjunctive, what do these all mean?
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#13
(Original post by AbiHorn)
Thankyou for your help
... One last thing; does preterite mean the past tense?
Thankyou for your help

And what is imperfect used for,
conditional
and subjunctive, what do these all mean?
Last edited by Plantagenet Crown; 1 year ago
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#14
Hi imperfect is a form of past tense used to describe an ongoing action that happened in the past.
For example I used to play tennis every week.
It's something that hasn't just happened once.
Conditional is a tense often alluded to through 'should' and 'would.' you can often use the conditional with if.
Subjunctive is a mood used to express desire and judgement. For example in English, if I were younger, if I were taller.
Hope this helps.
Feel free to ask if it's a little confusing.
For example I used to play tennis every week.
It's something that hasn't just happened once.
Conditional is a tense often alluded to through 'should' and 'would.' you can often use the conditional with if.
Subjunctive is a mood used to express desire and judgement. For example in English, if I were younger, if I were taller.
Hope this helps.
Feel free to ask if it's a little confusing.
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#15
(Original post by AbiHorn)
What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?
What is the difference between a regular verb and an irregular verb? i.e What makes something irregular?
BBC Bitesize for languages is a gem.
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#16
(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
Preterite is the simple past tense. e.g. "I went" instead of the difference type of past such as "I have eaten".
Generally for repeated actions in the past.
This is used for phrases where you use "would" and "should".
This is the most difficult tense and can't be explained simply. You'd need to actually be taught this properly.
Preterite is the simple past tense. e.g. "I went" instead of the difference type of past such as "I have eaten".
Generally for repeated actions in the past.
This is used for phrases where you use "would" and "should".
This is the most difficult tense and can't be explained simply. You'd need to actually be taught this properly.

I'm reallyyyyy sorry to be a pain, but I study GCSE French and have just started Spanish (in Year 10- I know


Also, is the preterite generally used with time phrases (por ejemplo: la semana pasada, fui de compras)?


Thank you and sorry to be a bother!
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#17
(Original post by Shining Stars)
Hello
,
I'm reallyyyyy sorry to be a pain, but I study GCSE French and have just started Spanish (in Year 10- I know
). I should knowwww this and I think I do ~ but could you quickly go over the differences between when to use the imperfect and preterite. Do you use the preterite for a completed action that took place over a small period of time and the imperfect for habitual actions in the past? 
Also, is the preterite generally used with time phrases (por ejemplo: la semana pasada, fui de compras)?
~ That was probably incorrect but hopefully you understand 
Thank you and sorry to be a bother!
Hello

I'm reallyyyyy sorry to be a pain, but I study GCSE French and have just started Spanish (in Year 10- I know


Also, is the preterite generally used with time phrases (por ejemplo: la semana pasada, fui de compras)?


Thank you and sorry to be a bother!
preterite: i ___ed (e.g: i walked the dog)
preterite is generally used with time phrases i think.
pm if you need more help with spanish

Last edited by username5009998; 1 year ago
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#20
(Original post by Shining Stars)
Hello
,
I'm reallyyyyy sorry to be a pain, but I study GCSE French and have just started Spanish (in Year 10- I know
). I should knowwww this and I think I do ~ but could you quickly go over the differences between when to use the imperfect and preterite. Do you use the preterite for a completed action that took place over a small period of time and the imperfect for habitual actions in the past? 
Also, is the preterite generally used with time phrases (por ejemplo: la semana pasada, fui de compras)?
~ That was probably incorrect but hopefully you understand 
Thank you and sorry to be a bother!
Hello

I'm reallyyyyy sorry to be a pain, but I study GCSE French and have just started Spanish (in Year 10- I know


Also, is the preterite generally used with time phrases (por ejemplo: la semana pasada, fui de compras)?


Thank you and sorry to be a bother!
Imperfect is used for completed actions in the past, again, I’m pretty much the same way you’d use it in English.
That phrase was correct but I don’t think it’s preterite because of the specific time phrase, but rather because you going shopping is a completed action. I could just as easily say “fui de compras” without adding any time phrase and it would still be perfectly correct.
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