Fayzan_Ali
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#1
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Revising for a test and come across a scenario and got 2 questions. IF its a wound not a 'inflict GBH' then do you still talk about causation if theres an intervening act in the scenario?
secondly when looking for a wound does deep cuts suffice or will the scenario have to mention some element of blood?
Quick replies appreciated.
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username3689312
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You always would talk about causation. Intervening act is part of the causation or lack of.

If you have a criminal textbook it would go into what constitutes a wound/GBH to satisfy S20.
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Fayzan_Ali
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(Original post by james_law)
You always would talk about causation. Intervening act is part of the causation or lack of.

If you have a criminal textbook it would go into what constitutes a wound/GBH to satisfy S20.
hey , so the definition of GBH s20 is unlawfully and maliciously wound OR inflict gbh upon v. In my textbook it talks about wound but no mention of causation for the wound BUT with 'inflict GBH' inflict means cause so causation is required so do i still talk about causation for the wound? Thanks
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IpsaLoquitur
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Yes, you discuss causation whenever a crime involves a specific consequence. It is implicit in the notion of wounding someone one - you can't wound someone without it being you who causes the wound to happen. A wound is something which breaks all the layers of the skin (Moriarty v Brooks (1834) 6 C&P 684). There doesn't strictly have to be blood and in theory you could do it without drawing blood - possibly by injecting a needle - but blood is obviously a good way of proving that all the layers of skin were broken.
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