# Relative Velocities

#1
If the Lorentz transformation is y=y’ then why is Uy≠Uy’ ?
0
#2
If the Lorentz transformation is y=y’ then why does the y component of velocity in the inertial frame NOT equal the y component velocity in the moving reference frame.
many thanks
0
2 years ago
#3
0
2 years ago
#4
(Original post by georgeh1ll)
If the Lorentz transformation is y=y’ then why is Uy≠Uy’ ?
(Original post by georgeh1ll)
If the Lorentz transformation is y=y’ then why does the y component of velocity in the inertial frame NOT equal the y component velocity in the moving reference frame.
many thanks
As velocity can be considered as the ratio of length interval to time interval, there is no length contraction is involved for transverse space intervals but time is dilated for the time interval. The “complicated” transverse velocity transformation is a direct consequence of time-dilation effect.
0
X

new posts
Back
to top
Latest

### Oops, nobody has postedin the last few hours.

Why not re-start the conversation?

see more

### Poll

Join the discussion

#### Does school Maths prepare people well enough for the future?

Yes, it gives everyone a good foundation for any future path (41)
32.28%
Somewhat, if your future involves maths/STEM (58)
45.67%
No, it doesn't teach enough practical life skills (27)
21.26%
Something else (tell us in the thread) (1)
0.79%