MM2002
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I keep getting stuck on inductive step! Any tips ?!?
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MM2002
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Name:  image.jpg
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Size:  109.3 KBHow did he get from line 1 to 2 on the inductive step ?! What did he factor out
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Idg a damn
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(k+1)!
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RDKGames
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(Original post by MM2002)
How did he get from line 1 to 2 on the inductive step ?! What did he factor out
Leave the -1 alone and factorise the leftover two terms by taking out (k+1)!
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MM2002
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(Original post by RDKGames)
Leave the -1 alone and factorise the leftover two terms by taking out (k+1)!
Am I left with this expression then (k+1)! [ -1 +(k+1)]
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MM2002
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(Original post by Idg a damn)
(k+1)!
I did that also. I still can not get the k+2 part
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RDKGames
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(Original post by MM2002)
Am I left with this expression then (k+1)! [ -1 +(k+1)]
No.

(k+1)! + (k+1)(k+1)! = (k+1)! [ 1 + (k+1)]
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MM2002
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(Original post by RDKGames)
No.

(k+1)! + (k+1)(k+1)! = (k+1)! [ 1 + (k+1)]
I don't see how the one is positive?
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RDKGames
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(Original post by MM2002)
I don't see how the one is positive?
Expand the brackets then to verify that it must be +1 and not -1.

If its -1 then expanding back will give you -(k+1)! which is not a term we have.
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MM2002
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(Original post by RDKGames)
Expand the brackets then to verify that it must be +1 and not -1.

If its -1 then expanding back will give you -(k+1)! which is not a term we have.
But, by factoring I don't see why it turns to -1
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shreytib
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(Original post by MM2002)
Name:  image.jpg
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Size:  109.3 KBHow did he get from line 1 to 2 on the inductive step ?! What did he factor out
(k+1)! - 1 + (k+1)(k+1)!
= [(k+1)! + (k+1)(k+1)!] - 1
=[ { (k+1)! } { (1) + (k+1) } ] - 1
= [(k+1)! (k+2)] - 1
= (k+2)! - 1

does that help?
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RDKGames
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(Original post by MM2002)
But, by factoring I don't see why it turns to -1
It doesnt ??

You seem very confused.

I have just shown you the factorisation, and then you asked why its +1 and not -1, and now you ask how it turns into -1... which it doesnt.


If you are talking about the -1 at the end of the expression on its own, then this is the same -1 I told you to ignore in my first post. We dont manipulate it at all here.
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MM2002
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(Original post by shreytib)
(k+1)! - 1 + (k+1)(k+1)!
= [(k+1)! + (k+1)(k+1)!] - 1
=[ { (k+1)! } { (1) + (k+1) } ] - 1
= [(k+1)! (k+2)] - 1
= (k+2)! - 1

does that help?
AMAZING!! Finally, understand how all the values come about. Thanks sooo much! Also, any tips on solving the inductive step?
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MM2002
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(Original post by RDKGames)
It doesnt ??

You seem very confused.

I have just shown you the factorisation, and then you asked why its +1 and not -1, and now you ask how it turns into -1... which it doesnt.


If you are talking about the -1 at the end of the expression on its own, then this is the same -1 I told you to ignore in my first post. We dont manipulate it at all here.
That clears things up. I was thinking about the -1 you told me ignore.
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