Proof of Euler's General Equation - an issue with sin an infinitesimals Watch

veekm
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So I'm reading from David Stipp: I am stuck on

how is sin(z) = v/n?

1. sin(0) = 0 therefore when z=infinitesimal sin(z) = 0.
2. v/n = z because scalar/infinitely-large-n = infinitesimal

so sin(z) = 0 and v/n = z but the twain don't meet!

Could someone explain that part of the proof?
https://i.imgur.com/3u5b6vA.png
Last edited by veekm; 4 days ago
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NotNotBatman
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Think about the Taylor's series.
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veekm
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Oh.. hmm - thanks - the other stuff in the series disappears and sin(infinitesimal) = infinitesimal
ergo sin(infinitesimal) = infinitesimal = scalar/n-infinitely-large
Last edited by veekm; 4 days ago
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