Proof of Euler's General Equation - an issue with sin an infinitesimals Watch
how is sin(z) = v/n?
1. sin(0) = 0 therefore when z=infinitesimal sin(z) = 0.
2. v/n = z because scalar/infinitely-large-n = infinitesimal
so sin(z) = 0 and v/n = z but the twain don't meet!
Could someone explain that part of the proof?
ergo sin(infinitesimal) = infinitesimal = scalar/n-infinitely-large