OxBan
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Hi all,

Just wondering if anyone can help me with a few sentences please?

I’m wondering why que is used in these two sentences and if there is a rule I am missing in order that I know how to use it correctly in the future?

Hay mucho que beber también.

La gente empieza a hablar, un poquito al principio, y mientras que toman, hablan más y más y en voz más y más.


Finally, in this sentence why a is used before mirar? Isn’t to (presuming that the a translates as to here) not already included in mirar, to look at?

Voy a mi alcoba a mirar mi vestuario.



Thanks for any help!
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OxBan
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Anyone?
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renaamz
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(Original post by OxBan)
Hi all,

Just wondering if anyone can help me with a few sentences please?

I’m wondering why que is used in these two sentences and if there is a rule I am missing in order that I know how to use it correctly in the future?

Hay mucho que beber también.

La gente empieza a hablar, un poquito al principio, y mientras que toman, hablan más y más y en voz más y más.


Finally, in this sentence why a is used before mirar? Isn’t to (presuming that the a translates as to here) not already included in mirar, to look at?

Voy a mi alcoba a mirar mi vestuario.



Thanks for any help!
I am going to be honest, these sentences don't make sense (unless they do in south America).

The first que is used as a "to"
I just can't even wrap my head around the other one, it might be so confusing as it is out of context but alone it seems to make no sense to me.
The a mirar in the last sentence is also used as a "to"
Last edited by renaamz; 1 year ago
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Cirxxbabz
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Hey I do A level Spanishabf love it sm but lol I can’t answer that question... all I can say is that they r all right

Reenamz says the second one doesn’t make sense but it does

Also renaamz doesn’t sentences ending in que have to be subjunctive at the end?
Or anyone can answer the question in fact...

But in GCSE... r u going GCSE OxBan
We would use those sentences and not use subjunctive for some reason...
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renaamz
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(Original post by Monsur x)
Hey I do A level Spanishabf love it sm but lol I can’t answer that question... all I can say is that they r all right

Reenamz says the second one doesn’t make sense but it does

Also renaamz doesn’t sentences ending in que have to be subjunctive at the end?
Or anyone can answer the question in fact...

But in GCSE... r u going GCSE OxBan
We would use those sentences and not use subjunctive for some reason...
I am Spanish and the sentences do not use words that would be regularly used in Spanish.
The second one is all over the place.
Other than that the two used as "to"
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Cirxxbabz
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(Original post by renaamz)
I am Spanish and the sentences do not use words that would be regularly used in Spanish.
The second one is all over the place.
Other than that the two used as "to"
The second one doesn’t make sense
But mientras que toman is right

And the ‘que’ is right
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renaamz
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(Original post by Monsur x)
The second one doesn’t make sense
But mientras que toman is right

And the ‘que’ is right
Yeah but in general it doesn't make sense
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OxBan
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Thanks all for this. The sentences are from a comprehension exercise in a Spanish textbook. I totally understand what they mean but the use of que was confusing me, I think I’ll just ignore it!!

With regards to the a, in the final sentence, yes I know it means to, but is there a rule for when you need to use a preposition for to before an infinitive as does not the infinitive, mirar in this case include to anyway, ‘to look at’? Sometimes there is not an a preposition included, for example Quiero mirar. ‘I want TO look at’?

Thanks again everyone!
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Plantagenet Crown
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(Original post by OxBan)
Hi all,

Just wondering if anyone can help me with a few sentences please?

I’m wondering why que is used in these two sentences and if there is a rule I am missing in order that I know how to use it correctly in the future?

Hay mucho que beber también.
I'm also a native speaker of Spanish

"Que" in this sentence means "to", i.e. there's lots to drink

La gente empieza a hablar, un poquito al principio, y mientras que toman, hablan más y más y en voz más y más.
1) In European Spanish at least, this sentence doesn't make sense because you need something after "toman". "Toman" by itself just means "they take" or "they drink" but it must be followed by a noun of some kind in this sentence. So if you added a noun after the "toman" that part of the sentence would work. In this context the "que" is not directly translatable to English, it's simply a preposition that's commonly used after "mientras". However, it's not strictly necessary here.

One could say "La gente empieza a hablar, un poquito al principio, y mientras toman mojitos, hablan más y más..."

Also, if you want to be super strict about grammar then the "toman" would in fact have to be "toma" because "la gente" is singular, not plural.

2) The last bit of the sentence, "y en voz más y más" doesn't make sense. The only construct that would make sense in this context, using the "voz" construction would be "en voz alta" which means "out loud". But even then it would still sound odd, because you've already said that people are beginning to talk more and more, so why would you then need to specify that they're speaking out loud?

Finally, in this sentence why a is used before mirar? Isn’t to (presuming that the a translates as to here) not already included in mirar, to look at?

Voy a mi alcoba a mirar mi vestuario.

Thanks for any help!
The reason for this is simple, in virtually all cases "a" must follow any conjugation of the verb "ir", both for nouns that follow it and verbs.

e.g. Voy a casa = I'm going home, here "a" is followed by a noun

e.g. Voy a comer = I'm going to eat, here "a" is followed by a verb

Therefore in the above sentence you have "a mi alcoba" because "alcoba" is a noun, but then you've got the verb "mirar" used straight after which still depends on the "voy" verb and therefore must take an "a" before it. Btw, I imagine "alcoba" (as bedroom) is only used in (parts) of South America. You'd never say that in Spain, there you would use "habitación" or "cuarto".
(Original post by Monsur x)
Hey I do A level Spanishabf love it sm but lol I can’t answer that question... all I can say is that they r all right

Reenamz says the second one doesn’t make sense but it does

Also renaamz doesn’t sentences ending in que have to be subjunctive at the end?
Or anyone can answer the question in fact...
No, subjunctive will often depend on the context and will not automatically be inserted in every sentence with "que" as the penultimate word.

e.g. Hay mucho que hacer = there's lots to do. No subjunctive necessary there.

But in GCSE... r u going GCSE OxBan
We would use those sentences and not use subjunctive for some reason...
None of the sentences provided by the OP require the subjunctive.
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Plantagenet Crown
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(Original post by OxBan)
Thanks all for this. The sentences are from a comprehension exercise in a Spanish textbook. I totally understand what they mean but the use of que was confusing me, I think I’ll just ignore it!!

With regards to the a, in the final sentence, yes I know it means to, but is there a rule for when you need to use a preposition for to before an infinitive as does not the infinitive, mirar in this case include to anyway, ‘to look at’? Sometimes there is not an a preposition included, for example Quiero mirar. ‘I want TO look at’?

Thanks again everyone!
As explained in my previous post, you're completely correct. The "to" is normally included in "mirar" but your last sentence starts with "voy" which is a form of the verb "ir" and there's a rule that any conjugation must be followed by "a", even before an infinitive.
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Cirxxbabz
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(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
None of the sentences provided by the OP require the subjunctive.
Kl thx
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OxBan
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(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
As explained in my previous post, you're completely correct. The "to" is normally included in "mirar" but your last sentence starts with "voy" which is a form of the verb "ir" and there's a rule that any conjugation must be followed by "a", even before an infinitive.
Thanks so much for your replies, very helpful!

I think I was confused, I know about ir + a, but I think because in this case there was a noun in between the ir a and infinitive, it needed an extra a.

So so to sum up, if you have verb + preposition + infinitive, you need to use the preposition before the infinitive even if some other words “get in the way” between?

Again thank you so much for taking the time to reply!
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Plantagenet Crown
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(Original post by OxBan)
Thanks so much for your replies, very helpful!

I think I was confused, I know about ir + a, but I think because in this case there was a noun in between the ir a and infinitive, it needed an extra a.

So so to sum up, if you have verb + preposition + infinitive, you need to use the preposition before the infinitive even if some other words “get in the way” between?

Again thank you so much for taking the time to reply!
Yes, exactly. There's no limit to how many "a"s can be used, it must always appear before a noun and/or verb whose clauses directly depend on the conjugation of "ir", no matter how many filler words or otherwise are in between.

e.g. I'm going home to eat and do my homework = voy a casa a comer y a hacer mis deberes.
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Cirxxbabz
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(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
Yes, exactly. There's no limit to how many "a"s can be used, it must always appear before a noun and/or verb whose clauses directly depend on the conjugation of "ir", no matter how many filler words or otherwise are in between.

e.g. I'm going home to eat and do my homework = voy a casa a comer y a hacer mis deberes.
Hey just a question
Can u use ‘Para’ as well instead
Like:

Voy a casa para comer y para hacer mis deberes ?
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Plantagenet Crown
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(Original post by Monsur x)
Hey just a question
Can u use ‘Para’ as well instead
Like:

Voy a casa para comer y para hacer mis deberes ?
You could, yes, though it sounds less natural to me. And using 2 “para”s sounds especially clunky. I would delete 1, and this deletion would now mean you don’t need to use “a” before “hacer” as the preposition “para” does not take an “a” after it.

e.g. Voy a casa para comer y hacer mis deberes
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Cirxxbabz
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(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
You could, yes, though it sounds less natural to me. And using 2 “para”s sounds especially clunky. I would delete 1, and this deletion would now mean you don’t need to use “a” before “hacer” as the preposition “para” does not take an “a” after it.

e.g. Voy a casa para comer y hacer mis deberes
Thanks so much!
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nickymoon22
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(Original post by OxBan)
Hi all,

Just wondering if anyone can help me with a few sentences please?

I’m wondering why que is used in these two sentences and if there is a rule I am missing in order that I know how to use it correctly in the future?

Hay mucho que beber también.

La gente empieza a hablar, un poquito al principio, y mientras que toman, hablan más y más y en voz más y más.


Finally, in this sentence why a is used before mirar? Isn’t to (presuming that the a translates as to here) not already included in mirar, to look at?

Voy a mi alcoba a mirar mi vestuario.



Thanks for any help!
'que' can mean who, that, whom, or which, which in the sentence is trying to make sense if you take the que of the sentence
the sentence won't make sense and you won't know what the person is trying to say, finally 'a' means 'to' and if I translated it will mean 'to look' , I hoped this help you if know come back to me and tell me so.
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Plantagenet Crown
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(Original post by nickymoon22)
'que' can mean who, that, whom, or which, which in the sentence is trying to make sense if you take the que of the sentence
the sentence won't make sense and you won't know what the person is trying to say, finally 'a' means 'to' and if I translated it will mean 'to look' , I hoped this help you if know come back to me and tell me so.
No, the presence of the "a" is not because of "to look". The "to" is already included in "mirar", therefore the presence of the "a" is due to something else in that sentence.
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nickymoon22
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(Original post by Plantagenet Crown)
No, the presence of the "a" is not because of "to look". The "to" is already included in "mirar", therefore the presence of the "a" is due to something else in that sentence.


yes, it is because if I translate into English is' I go to my bedroom to look at my wardrobe' so 'a' is 'to' because I know my Spanish and fluently on it, so I know my stuff.
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Plantagenet Crown
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(Original post by nickymoon22)
yes, it is because if I translate into English is' I go to my bedroom to look at my wardrobe' so 'a' is 'to' because I know my Spanish and fluently on it, so I know my stuff.
No it's not. "To look" on its own simply translates to "mirar", not to "a mirar" therefore we can see the "to" is already included in the infinitive.

The "a" is due to the presence of a conjugation of "ir".

If I simply said "in my bedroom I look at my wardrobe" it would be = "en mi cuarto miro mi armario". There's no "a" there.

I'm a native speaker, in that sentence "a" is only triggered before "mirar" because there's a conjugation of the verb "ir" which must almost always be followed by an "a"
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