The Student Room Group
Reply 1
Well, there are many ways to prove that a function is injective and hence has the inverse you seek. One of them is to show that the function is increasing (Can you see why)
Reply 2
no not really...
Reply 3
If the function is strictly increasing then f(x2)>f(x1)f(x_2) > f(x_1) whenever x2>x1x_2 > x_1. You should be able to see that this implies the function is also injective.
Reply 4
Kolya
If the function is strictly increasing then f(x2)>f(x1)f(x_2) > f(x_1) whenever x2>x1x_2 > x_1. So, clearly, f(x1)f(x_1) cannot equal f(x2)f(x_2) whenever x1x2x_1 \neq x_2. Hence strictly increasing means the function is injective.


oh i get it now, but is that enough proof? would i need to give some values or something?
Reply 5
ignore that, thanks :smile:
Reply 6
Within the context of the question, I think it would be enough to just state that strictly increasing implies injective, and then use that idea to complete the question. (However, the proof of the intermediate result is easy.)

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