foreverrocking
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Hi,can someone please mark this essay and give me some feedback.I am really bad at english lit because I cannot come up with any good ideas so sorry if this is really bad.Thanks



Lady Macbeth indicates her desperation to gain power by commanding the “spirits” to “unsex her here”. This may be because in the patriarchal society and in the eyes of her husband her female attribute would “impede “her from gaining the “golden round”. So by unsexing and removing this femininity she would have been seen as more persuasive.Furthermore,Lady Macbeth rejects the contemporary fear of the witches ,despite know that she will be condemned to hell; socially would have not been accepted ,adhering to gothic themes. Her willingness to deal with the supernatural would naturally present her a powerful because she presents male heroic character, particularly been associated with soldiers like Macbeth. The fact that Lady Macbeth is given a soliloquy so early on in the play will shock the audience as in the Jacobean times women would have been seen inferior to men, thus would been forced hide their feelings. Therefore, the fact that Lady Macbeth is allotted a inner voice by Shakespeare would have seen as powerful.
Lady Macbeth exerts her power onto Macbeth by implicitly encouraging him to commit regicide. This is because she forces her husband “to look like the innocent flower but be the serpent under it”. The imperative verbs “be” and “look” subverts the dynamic power in typical Jacobean relationship and by her taking command, it highlights how she may be the one who directs Macbeth to this tragedy.Furthermore,the juxtaposition of “flower “ and “serpent” is indicative of Lady Macbeth cunning and deceptive nature to forcing her husband to commit regicide, features that would have been seen as powerful for a women to portray. The Christocentric audience would have seen Lady Macbeth as the embodiment of evil because “serpent” may be a direct reference to the “serpent” that tempted Eve into following her desire, which caused her to reject god’s will and ultimately release the formation of the original sin,foreshadowing her downfall as a result of disobeying the divine natural order by implicitly suggesting the idea of regicide to Macbeth. Shakespeare suggests there are consequences for doing so, and this can be seen in her weaker appearance in Act 5 which contrasts her seemingly powerful display here. Lady Macbeth can't sleep anymore, thanks to the 'damned spot' of blood on her hand. The smallness of a 'spot' suggests that Lady Macbeth is downplaying the severity of her actions of betraying the Chain of Being and God, and 'damn[ing]' the spot, not herself. This suggests that she is rejecting the responsibility for dishonourable actions, making her appear to be even more dishonourable. 'Damned' also shows, to a Jacobean audience, the consequences of going against the Chain of Being by committing regicide and this further explored through her death host as Shakespeare points out her proper, subservient place in this patriarchal society by having her die off stage. She is punished for being unsexed and rejecting her gender, her feminine role..This cyclical structure of power may have been to deter any other regicide attempts against James 1st so acts like a cautionary tale for others
On the other hand, perhaps Shakespeare is highlighting how it is only natural for Lady Macbeth to gain power in a sinful manner because she is marginalized by the patriarchal society .This is echoed by the stage direction “a cry of a women” ,we can view this as her desperation for power that she cannot obtain by an unsinfull manner and perhaps a plea to the audience to have some ewuality for women. Lady Macbeth is killed off stage, which presents how powerless she really is and how, despite assisting in regicide, she still obtains no power because of one reason: she is a woman.
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txnishkx_343
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(Original post by foreverrocking)
Hi,can someone please mark this essay and give me some feedback.I am really bad at english lit because I cannot come up with any good ideas so sorry if this is really bad.Thanks



Lady Macbeth indicates her desperation to gain power by commanding the “spirits” to “unsex her here”. This may be because in the patriarchal society and in the eyes of her husband her female attribute would “impede “her from gaining the “golden round”. So by unsexing and removing this femininity she would have been seen as more persuasive.Furthermore,Lady Macbeth rejects the contemporary fear of the witches ,despite know that she will be condemned to hell; socially would have not been accepted ,adhering to gothic themes. Her willingness to deal with the supernatural would naturally present her a powerful because she presents male heroic character, particularly been associated with soldiers like Macbeth. The fact that Lady Macbeth is given a soliloquy so early on in the play will shock the audience as in the Jacobean times women would have been seen inferior to men, thus would been forced hide their feelings. Therefore, the fact that Lady Macbeth is allotted a inner voice by Shakespeare would have seen as powerful.
Lady Macbeth exerts her power onto Macbeth by implicitly encouraging him to commit regicide. This is because she forces her husband “to look like the innocent flower but be the serpent under it”. The imperative verbs “be” and “look” subverts the dynamic power in typical Jacobean relationship and by her taking command, it highlights how she may be the one who directs Macbeth to this tragedy.Furthermore,the juxtaposition of “flower “ and “serpent” is indicative of Lady Macbeth cunning and deceptive nature to forcing her husband to commit regicide, features that would have been seen as powerful for a women to portray. The Christocentric audience would have seen Lady Macbeth as the embodiment of evil because “serpent” may be a direct reference to the “serpent” that tempted Eve into following her desire, which caused her to reject god’s will and ultimately release the formation of the original sin,foreshadowing her downfall as a result of disobeying the divine natural order by implicitly suggesting the idea of regicide to Macbeth. Shakespeare suggests there are consequences for doing so, and this can be seen in her weaker appearance in Act 5 which contrasts her seemingly powerful display here. Lady Macbeth can't sleep anymore, thanks to the 'damned spot' of blood on her hand. The smallness of a 'spot' suggests that Lady Macbeth is downplaying the severity of her actions of betraying the Chain of Being and God, and 'damn[ing]' the spot, not herself. This suggests that she is rejecting the responsibility for dishonourable actions, making her appear to be even more dishonourable. 'Damned' also shows, to a Jacobean audience, the consequences of going against the Chain of Being by committing regicide and this further explored through her death host as Shakespeare points out her proper, subservient place in this patriarchal society by having her die off stage. She is punished for being unsexed and rejecting her gender, her feminine role..This cyclical structure of power may have been to deter any other regicide attempts against James 1st so acts like a cautionary tale for others
On the other hand, perhaps Shakespeare is highlighting how it is only natural for Lady Macbeth to gain power in a sinful manner because she is marginalized by the patriarchal society .This is echoed by the stage direction “a cry of a women” ,we can view this as her desperation for power that she cannot obtain by an unsinfull manner and perhaps a plea to the audience to have some ewuality for women. Lady Macbeth is killed off stage, which presents how powerless she really is and how, despite assisting in regicide, she still obtains no power because of one reason: she is a woman.
It’s quite good, however at the start she won’t be seen as more persuasive, she’ll be seen as more powerful.
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txnishkx_343
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Also, when you talk about the imperative verbs ‘be’ and ‘look’, you can also say they are commanding which would be unseen in those times (for a woman to command her husband)
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foreverrocking
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(Original post by txnishkx_343)
It’s quite good, however at the start she won’t be seen as more persuasive, she’ll be seen as more powerful.
Thank you .Do you possibly know what grade would you give this.This is my first time answering a question on the Macbeth play
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txnishkx_343
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I think a 6or 7, which is quite good if it is your first question
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foreverrocking
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(Original post by txnishkx_343)
I think a 6or 7, which is quite good if it is your first question
Thank you
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txnishkx_343
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It’s no biggie
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