Dr jekyll and hydeWatch this thread
"but he answered never a word"
Could someone analysis this in DETAIL cause I'm really stuck thank you.
‘But’ - coordinating conjunction attempts to clarify ambiguity (of Hyde?) but this is contradicted by the fact that he answered ‘never a word’. The lack of verbal communication from Hyde only increases this sense of unclarity. The conflict within this phrase could reflect the fight in Victorian gentlemen to repress their immoral desires.
‘Answered never’ - unnatural phrasing may allude to the abnormal, uncomfortable nature of Hyde (as he is a manifestation of the Victorian gentleman’s repressed ‘darker’ desires).
After, it’s useful to link back to any points that the author (Stevenson) may have wanted to put across, e.g. through this phrase, Stevenson may have wanted to emphasise the internal conflict which can be hidden in anyone, even those of a great reputation (Dr Jekyll).
And then link to the general context of the time that the book was written in, or how Victorian readers may have seen the phrase- for example, would have Victorian readers found the fact that Hyde did not speak a word to Sir Danvers Carew odd? Could this reflect this secrecy that was rampant at the time, because words are seen by many to be a window to the soul?
Hope I was able to help!