Thecleansecheck
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if someone gives an offer to someone else, and a third party intervenes and tries to accept that offer are they allowed.
e.g A gives special offer to B (because theyre friends) for a car, C hears it from B and tries to accept As offer which was given to B not C. B so far hasn't accepted As offer, but will within a week. as far as i know C can't do that. Or can they? any help appreciated and authority for rules if possible.
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ROTL94
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(Original post by Thecleansecheck)
if someone gives an offer to someone else, and a third party intervenes and tries to accept that offer are they allowed.
e.g A gives special offer to B (because theyre friends) for a car, C hears it from B and tries to accept As offer which was given to B not C. B so far hasn't accepted As offer, but will within a week. as far as i know C can't do that. Or can they? any help appreciated and authority for rules if possible.
It's largely common sense, you can't accept an offer that has not been made to you. A contract requires an intention to be bound by an offer, that intention only extends to B.
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Thecleansecheck
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(Original post by ROTL94)
It's largely common sense, you can't accept an offer that has not been made to you. A contract requires an intention to be bound by an offer, that intention only extends to B.
so an irac on this answer would just be rule is that C can't accept it apply and conclude. but whats the authority for this rule
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CJStevens
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#4
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(Original post by Thecleansecheck)
if someone gives an offer to someone else, and a third party intervenes and tries to accept that offer are they allowed.
e.g A gives special offer to B (because theyre friends) for a car, C hears it from B and tries to accept As offer which was given to B not C. B so far hasn't accepted As offer, but will within a week. as far as i know C can't do that. Or can they? any help appreciated and authority for rules if possible.
Not unless it is a unilateral offer - see the cases of Partridge v Crittenden and Carlil v Carbolic smoke company.

For an offer to be valid it must have been communicated to the offeree. One cannot merely assume the role of offeree upon over-hearing negotiations.
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Thecleansecheck
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(Original post by CJStevens)
Not unless it is a unilateral offer - see the cases of Partridge v Crittenden and Carlil v Carbolic smoke company.

For an offer to be valid it must have been communicated to the offeree. One cannot merely assume the role of offeree upon over-hearing negotiations.
so how would i write an irac on it if you know.
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CJStevens
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(Original post by Thecleansecheck)
so how would i write an irac on it if you know.
Explain the issue as you have to us, mwntion the rules on formation of an offer and possibly even privity (using cases to back yourself up), analyse it and then conclude
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