ahmedpatel8888
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If 4 friends are joint tenants and one sends an email to rest of them saying that he wishes to sell the house as soon as possible and receive his share, is that effective severance? Does it meet requirement of written notice and immediacy. Another issue is that one of the emails was misspelt so it didn’t actually reach the email address of that person. However, the other tenants who received it, printed it out at the house of the tenants, so in effect, there is now a written copy at the house even though it was destroyed without the tenant with the misspelled email address seeing it. Is this effective severance?
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tabshiftspace
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I would say it doesn't meet the requirements, because it is not clear that he/she wishes to sever the joint tenancy. Also, as he didn't serve notice on all of the tenants, it would be worrisome to rely on second hand notice. Just my opinion.
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Lawschoolhack
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(Original post by tabshiftspace)
I would say it doesn't meet the requirements, because it is not clear that he/she wishes to sever the joint tenancy. Also, as he didn't serve notice on all of the tenants, it would be worrisome to rely on second hand notice. Just my opinion.
On the 'service of notice' point have a look at LPA 1925, s.196(3) and Kinch v Bullard.

Personally I believe that there is evidence of an intention to sever. But that's just my view.

You need to share your own thoughts and remember that you will only get credit if you show your reasoning and support it with authority.

Good luck with it.
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