I get the general idea but I’m not sure how to answer to get 2 marks. I would say that the scale on a metre ruler is less detailed so the result would likely be rounded to the nearest cm. For a start I’m not 100% certain if this answer is correct and if it is, it only seems like a 1 mark response
I'm assuming the "resolution" of said metre ruler is 1mm (if it's 1cm then replace every subsequent 100 by 1000), therefore 100 times less than that of the micrometer.
As such the imprecision of any measurement as recorded by the ruler is quantified 100x more so than that of the micrometer.
For example (assuming 1mm vs 0.01mm), if both are used to measure say the diameter of a 1mm pinhead, a measurement error through use of the 1m ruler could effect the accuracy of the true diameter reading by 100%, compared to only 1% through use of the micrometer, therefore the latter is more suitable in this regard